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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-20)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. The grant of 'Diwani' in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was given to the English East India company by the Treaty in 1765 with

(a) Shah Alam II
b) Mir Qasim
(c) Siraj-ud-daula
(d) Fran cis Josept Dupleix

2. Which of the following European wars flared up the first carnatic war in India ?

(a) War of Spanish succession
(b) Austrian war of succession
(c) War of Devolution
(d) War of France-Prasa

3. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the National Company Law Tribunal?

1. National Company Law Tribunal was established by companies act,2013
2. Its principal bench is situated at Mumbai

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both D. None

4. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

A. The Committee on Public Accounts
B. The Committee on Estimates
C. The Committee on Public Undertakings
D. The Committee on Petitions

5. Crimea has been in news recently, this is a disputed area between which of the following?

A. Russia and Ukraine
B. Russia and Turkey
C. Syria and Iraq
D. Syria and Israel

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ANS: 1(a), 2(b), 3(a), 4(b), 5(a)

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-19)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the World Trade organisation?

1.   The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
2.   Kazakhstan is the latest member to join WTO

A. 1 only        
B. 2 only
C. Both           
D. None

2.  consider the following statement about VVPAT is/are incorrect

1.   All elections except local bodies election uses VVPAT
2.   VVPAT machine specially designed by the BHEL

A. 1 only        
B. 2 only
C. Both          
D. None

3.  The total number of member states in the United Nations are?

A. 192                       
B. 193
C. 194                       
D. 197

4. Which of the following articles provide for the reservation in Indian constitution?

1.   Art 15         
2.   Art 16
3.   Art 25         
4.   Art 22

A. 1,3 only
B. 1,2 and 4 only
C. 1,2 only
D.  1,3 and 4 only

5.  Which of the following are neighbours of Iran?

1.   Iraq            
2. Turkmenistan
3.   Syria          
4. Turkey

A. 1,2 and 3             
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 1,3 and 4             
D. 1 and 4

 

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ANS: 1(c), 2(c), 3(b), 4(c), 5(b)

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-18)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. China-Pakistan Economic corridor starts from Xinjiang and ends at which of the following places?

A. Gwadar
B. Lahore
C. Islamabad
D. Gilgit

2. Which of the following ports are matched correctly with their country?

1. Chabahar : Iran
2. Hambantota : Sri Lanka
3. Gwadar : Bangladesh
A. 1,3
B. 1,2
C. 2,3
D. All

3. Which of the following will help in increasing cashless transactions?

1. Linking bank accounts with Aadhar cards.
2. Providing direct benefit transfer for schemes
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

4. Which of the following is correct regarding NGT?

1. It's chairperson should be retired or serving High court or Supreme Court judge only
2. It looks cases environmental protection only
3. Current chairperson is justice swatanter Kumar.
A. 1,2
B. 2 ,3
C. All
D. 3 only

5. Article 239 AA is related to which of the following?

A. Special power given to State of Jammu and Kashmir
B. Special power to State of Manipur
C. Special power to NCT Delhi and Puducherry
D. Special power to NCT Delhi only


 

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ANS: 1(a), 2(b), 3(c), 4(d), 5(d) 

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-17)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Sabarimala temple is situated in which of the following states?

(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

2. Who among the following is eligible to be a registered voter in India?

A. Any citizen of India attaining 18 years at the time of election
B. Any citizen of India attaining 18 years at the time of last electoral rolls preparation
C. Any citizen of India attaining 18 years First Jan of the year of revision of electoral rolls
D. None of the above

3. Which of the following is not the main organ of the United Nations?

A. International Court of Justice
B. Economic and Social Council
C. Secretariat
D. International Monetary Fund

4.  Which of the following is not a function of SEBI?

A. Regulating the business in stock exchanges and any other securities markets;
B. Registering and regulating the working of venture capital funds and collective investment schemes, including mutual funds;
C. Promoting and regulating self-regulatory Organizations
D. All of the above are functions of SEBI

5.  Which of the following will be the effect of demonetization?

A. More money supply in the stock markets
B. Less money into stock markets
C.  More electronic transactions
D. Less electronic transactions

1.   Only A and B
2. Only B and C
3.   Only A and C
4.   Only B and D
 

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ANS: 1(c), 2(d), 3(d), 4(d), 5(c) 

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-16)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Consider the following statements.

(1)  Bye-election is to held within 1 year of the occurrence of the vacancy in any house of parliament.
(2)  If the contesting candidate is dead before the actual polling then the party should propose another candidate within seven days.
(3)  1999 the provision was made for voting through postal Ballot to their constituency.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)  1 only
(b)  2 & 3 only
(c)  1 & 3 only
(d)  All of the above

2.  Consider the following statements.

(1)  A candidate should have a domicile of that which state where the contesting an election for the Rajya Sabha.
(2)  A candidate sponsored by a recognised political party only one proposer is required in election.
(3)  Rajya Sabha uses the open ballot system.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only                 
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) All of the above

3. Regarding the Term 'Genetic Erosion' consider the following statements:

1. Genetic Erosion means decrease of crops, diversity and their coid forms.
2. Transformation of Agriculture is held in Genetic Erosion.
3. Genetic Erosion happens when humans invent new crops and give them preference.
4. Economic and industrial development also play a big role in genetic Erosion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2               
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3           
(d) All the above.

4. One atom of ehlonive destroys how may atoms of ozone?

(a) One thousand     
(b) Ten thousand
(c) Fifty thousand  
(d) One Lakh

5.  Bioremediation process event to decrease the pollution in atmosphere:

Consider the following statement about this process.

1. To decrease the environmental pollutant
2. Living micro organism use in this process
3. By this process polluted places were came in their pre-stage

4. By this process the life cycle of elements in the environment cannot be maintained.

Select correct answer-codes given below:         

(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2      
(c)  1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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ANS: 1(b), 2(b), 3(d), 4(b), 5(c) 

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-15)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Consider the following statements.

(1) The Election commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the Parliament.
(2) The appointment of the Chief election Commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the President.
(3) The condition of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners shall be determined by the Parliament.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) All of the above

2. Consider the following statements.

(1) The removal of the Chief Election Commissioner is similar as the removal of a Judge of Supreme Court.
(2) The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the houses of parliament with a special majority.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements with regards to powers & functions of the Election Commission.

(1) The Election Commission will notify the dates and schedules of elections and to scrutinise the nomination papers.
(2) To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies through­out the country on the basis of the delimination commission Act of parliament.
(3) To advise the President on matters relating to the disqualifications of the member of the state legislature.

Select the correct code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 3 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1 & 2 only

4. Consider the following statements.

(1) The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a term of six years.
(2) The Chief Election Commissioner holds office till he attains the age of 63 years.
(3) Election Commissioner & Chief Election Commissioner draw salaries and allowances at par with those of the judges of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 3 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) All of the above

5. Consider the following statements.

(1) Lowering the voting age to 18 year by amending Article 326.
(2) No candidate can contest to Lok Sabha from more than two constituencies except in Union Territory.
(3) The President can extend the National emergency on the recommendation of the Election Commission.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) All of the above

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ANS: 1(b), 2(c), 3(d), 4(b), 5(a) 

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-14)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Consider the following statements.

(1)  The 52nd Amendment Act 1985 provided for the disqualification of the Member of Parliament.
(2)  An independent member can be disqualified if He joins any political party after election.
(3)  If the nominated member joins any political party after six month from the date on which he takes his seat in the house then member will disqualified.     

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) All of the above

2. Consider the following statements.

(1) The Anti defection law gives for the first time a clear-cut constitutional recognition to the existence of political parties.
(2) The total number of Minister including the Prime Minister in the central council of Minister shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)  Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements.

(1) The inter-state council was set up under Article 283 of the constitution of India by the President in 1990.

(2) The President is the chairman of the inter-state council.

(3) In inter-state council, the Six Central Cabinet Ministers, including the Home Minister, to be nominated by the President.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 & 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 & 2 only
(d)  All of the above

4. Which of the following statements meets the objective of the zonal councils.

(1) To achieve an emotional integration of the country.
(2) To secure some kind of political equilibrium between different regions of the country.
(3) With each other in social and economic matters.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 & 3 only
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) All of the above

5. Consider the following statements about zonal council.

(1) Northern Zonal council Headquarter situated in New Delhi.
(2) Central Zonal council Headquarter established in Madhya Pradesh.
(3) North-Eastern council Headquarter established in Meghalaya.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3 only
 

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ANS: 1(d), 2(a), 3(b), 4(d), 5(a) 

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-13)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Which of the following authorities has the power to declare an area as disturbed area under the Armed Forces Special Power Act (AFSPA).

(a)  President of India
(b)  Governor of the State/UT
(c)  Both the President and governor of a state
(d) Armed Forces

2.  Which of the following statements relating to executive clemency is not correct?

(a)  The power exercised by the President under Article 72 is judicially reviewable.
(b)  A mercy petitioner does not enjoy the right to be heard before the President.
(c)  The President but not the Governor of a state enjoys the power to reduce death sentence to life imprisonment.
(d) The power under Article 72 is exercised by the President on the aid and Advice of the council of Minister.

3.  Consider the following statements.

(1)  The governor may with hold His assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an Act.
(2)  Governor can summon or prorogue the state legislature but cannot dissolve the state legislative assembly.
      
 Which of the statement given above is / are correct.
(a)  1 only                 
(b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 & 2         
(d)  None of above

 4.  Consider the following statements.

(1)  Governor makes appointments, postings and promotions of the district judges is consultation with the supreme court.
(2)  Governor is consulted by the President while appointing the judges of the concerned state high court.
        
Which of the statement given above is / are correct.
(a)  1 only                 
(b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 & 2         
(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 5.  Consider the following statements.

(1)  Governor nominates one-sixth of the member of the state legislative council from amongst persons having special knowledge.
(2)  Governor can nominate one member to the state legislature assembly from the Anglo-Indian community.
   
Which of the statement given above is / are correct.
(a)  1 only                 
(b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 & 2         
(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

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ANS: 1(d), 2(c), 3(a), 4(b), 5(c) 

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-12)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Consider the following statements

1. Epidermis is the outer most layer of the skin
2. Epidermis has blood vessels 

Which of the above statement is/are?

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 
(c) 1 only 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements about Sweat?

1. A watery secretion produced by the sweat gland
2. It helps to eliminate waste 
3. Sweat removes large quantities of heart from the body surface 

Which of the above statement is/are?

(a) All of the above
(b) 2 & 3 
(c) 1 & 2
(d) 1 & 3

3. Consider the following statements.

(1) 7th constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
(2) The governor is the chief executive head of the state.
(3) Part VI of the constitution is not applicable to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 3 only
(c) 2&3 only
(d) 1,2&3 only

4. Consider the following statements about governor.

(1) The governor should not be a member of either House of Parliament.
(2) The governor should be a member of the state legislature.
(3) Governor should have completed the age of 40 years before the appointment.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3 only 3. Consider the following statements.

5. Consider the following statements

(1) All executive actions of the government of a state are formally taken by governor’s name.
(2) The governor cannot promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.
(3) No demand for a grant can be made except on governor recommendations.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3 only

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ANS: 1(b), 2(a), 3(d), 4(a), 5(c) 

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-11)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. With reference to a geosynchronous satellite, consider the following statements:

(i) A geostationary satellite is a special case of geosynchronous satellite which has a geostationary orbit- an elliptical orbit directly above the Earth’s equator.
(ii) Another type of geosynchronous orbit used by satellites is the Tundra elliptical orbit
(iii) There are approximately 3000 operational geosynchronous satellites

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) Only (i) 
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Only (ii) and (iii)

2. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a) The range of a projectile is same if the angles of projections in two cases are 75° and 15° from the horizontal.
(b) The pendulum has maximum velocity and zero amplitude at the mean point.
(c) The waves created due to fast movement of motor boat are called shock waves.
(d) The instrument to measure pressure of liquid in a container is manometer.

3. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Pulmonary circulation is maintained in left side of heart. 
2. Systematic circulation is maintained by left side of the heart. 

Which of the above statement is/are?

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements

1. Plasma of group A has antibody b
2. Plasma of group B has antibody a.
3. Plasma of group AB has a, b antibodies.

Select the correct code

(a) 2, 3
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 1, 2
(d) All of the above

5. Consider the following statements

1. In mammals heart contains two articles & two ventricles 
2. Sinus verous is present in fishes amphibian and reptiles. 

Which of the above statement is/are?

(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Only 1
(d) neither 1 nor 2
 

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ANS: 1(c), 2(c), 3(c), 4(d), 5(b)

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-10)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Consider the following:

(1) Downsizing of bureaucracy 
(2) Disinvestment of shares of public sector undertakings
(3) Reduction of subsidies

Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

2. The twenty point programme was launched in 1975. which of the following can best be described as the ultimate objective envisioned by the programme?

(a) To ensure employment for BPL urban area.
(b) To accelerate pending irrigation projects in states.
(c) To focus on livelihood creation for women in urban areas 
(d) To enhance living status of the people.

3. In context to ‘Credit Rating scheme’ in India consider the following statements-

(i) Credit Rating Scheme for medium and micro small enterprise was launched in the year 2004.  
(ii) ONICRA is not an accredited Credit Rating Agency of India.
(iii) National small industries Corporation has been appointed as implementing agency for this scheme.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 

(a) Only (i) and (ii)|
(b) Only (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

4. What is the source of energy in an exothermic chemical reaction?

(a) Some mass gets converted into energy as per the famous equation, E = mc2.
(b) Because of breaking and formation of bonds.
(c) Because of the difference in activity of the atoms of the chemical reaction and the surrounding molecules.
(d) None of the above.

5. The sky is blue and the clouds (non-rainy) are white ‘because of:

(a) Scattering of light in both the cases. 
(b) Scattering of light in case of sky and destructive interference of light in the case of clouds.
(c) Scattering of light in case of sky and diffraction of light in the case of clouds
(d) None of these
 

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-9)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Which of the following clearly defines the objective of the scheme “Assistance India club”?

(a) To provide economic assistance to India.
(b) To provide intensive cash package for development of SCIST
(c) Assistance for education of minorities
(d) Special help package for women and children below age of 6 years.

2. Which of the following describes the objective of intensive Agriculture Area programme?

(a) Development of fertilisers specific to certain crops
(b) Development of intensive irrigation in infrastructure.
(c) Development of intensive area based agriculture complexes.
(d) Development of specialized crops.

3. Which of the following comprised “monetary stimulus package” by the RBI to revive the economy after the 2008 global meltdown?

(1) Reduction of CRR 
(2) Reduction of Repo and Reserve Repo notes
(3) Reduction of SLR
(4) Curbs on commercial banks lending for consumer durables. 

Select the correct answer from the codes below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

4. Which of the following best defines the objective of command area Development programme?

(a) Making irrigational facilities available for big and small projects
(b) Making irrigational facilities available for big, medium and small projects
(c) Making irrigational facilities available for medium and small projects
(d) None of the above

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-8)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Which of the following is not a missile under integrated guided missile development programme?

A. Agni
B. Dhanush
C. Prithvi
D. Nag

2. Polavaram Project does not run through which of the following state?

A. Odisha 
B. Chhattisgarh 
C. Telangana 
D. Andhra Pradesh

3. FC-31 stealth fighter is manufactured by which of the following countries?

A. China
B. USA
C. France
D. Russia

4. Which of the following is correct regarding inland waterways of India?

I. The total cargo moved by the inland waterway is just 10% of the total inland traffic in India
II. National Waterway 1 is the longest of all waterways in India

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I & II
D. None

5. In the context of economic slowdown, fiscal and monetary stimuli were implemented by the Government of India. These were in the form of:

(1) Expansionary monetary policy
(2) Contractionary monetary policy 
(3) Expansionary fiscal policy 
(4) Contractionary fiscal policy

Select the correct answer from the code given below 

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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ANS:

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-7)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Which countries are part of solar alliance announced by India in COP 21?

A. Countries above equator
B. Countries Between tropic of cancer and capricorn
C. Countries between equator and Tropic of Cancer
D. Countries between equator and Tropic of Capricorn

 

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Nuclear suppliers Group?

I. It was established after India's first nuclear test.
II. Imp Decision in NSG are taken on the basis of two-third majority.
III. Presently there are 48 members in NSG

A. I, II
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. All


3. FCRA has been seen in the news recently, it is related to which of the following?

A. Health Indicators
B. Malnutrition
C. NGO's
D. Security


4. Which of the following country has not signed an open sky offer with India?

A. Sri Lanka
B. Jamaica
C. Nepal
D. Czech Republic


5. West Bank area mostly seen in news, is related to which of the following parts of the world?

A. Central Asia
B. South East Asia
C. Southern America
D. Middle east

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EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness (Set-6)

EPFO Exam Model Questions : General Awareness

1. Consider the following statements about the primary waves.

1. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.
2. They travel only through solid material.
3. They are similar to sound waves.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) only 1 and 2
(b) only 1 and 3
(c) only 2 and 3
(d) All the above

2. Consider the following statements:

1. It has observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105°C. from the epicenter, recorded the arrival of both P and S- waves.
2. A zone between 105°C and 145°C from epicenter was identified as the shadow zone for both types of waves.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The mercalli scale takes into account the visible damage caused by the earth quake
2. The range of the intensity scale is from 0-12.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. In context of the structure of the earth consider the following statements.

1. The core mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km.
2. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron.
3. The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) only 1
(b) only 2 and 3
(c) only 1 and 3
(d) All the above

5. Which of the following is not part of Article 39 ?

A. Equal right of adequate means for men and women
B. ownership and control of resources distributed for common good
C. health of strength of workers is not abused
D. State shall secure equal justice and free legal aid

EPFO Enforcement Officer Exam Study Notes

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-43)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-43)


Directions: From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set.

1. Given set

(23, 29, 37)

(a) (17, 21, 29)
(b) (31, 37, 49)
(c) (13, 15, 23)
(d) (41, 47, 53)

2. Given set

(8, 48, 64)

(a) (8, 26, 30)
(b) (16, 34, 31)
(c) (12, 24, 36)
(d) (11, 21, 13)

3. A series of figures are given which can be grouped into classes. From the responses, select the group into which the figures can be classified.

 (a) 2, 5, 9          
      3, 6, 8                 
      1, 4, 7                   
(b) 1, 6, 7
      3, 5, 8
      2, 4, 9
(c)  2, 5, 9  
      3, 4, 8
     1, 6, 7      
(d) 1, 3, 8
     2, 4, 6
     5, 7, 9

Directions: Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?

4.
(a) Honey
(b) Flower
(c) Bee
(d) Wax

(a) b, a, d, c
(b) b, c, a, d
(c) d, c, b, a
(d) a, c, d, b

5.
(a) Plant
(b) Food
(c) Seed
(d) Leaf
(e) Flower

(a) a,c,d,e,b
(b) c, b, d, e, a
(c) c, a, d, e, b
(d) e, d, c, b, a
 

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Answers:

1(d), 2(c), 3(c), 4(b), 5(c)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-42)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-42)


1. A and B can do work in 12 days. B and C in 15 days. C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work together, they will complete the work in:

(a) 5 days
(b) 11 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 12 days

2. A is thrice as good a work­man as B and therefore, able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Working together they will do it in:

(a) 20 days
(b) 22½days
(c) 25 days
(d) 30 days

3. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes are opened together, the time taken to fill the tank is:

(a) 50 minutes
(b) 12 minutes
(c) 25 minutes
(d) 15 minutes

4. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days and 266 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys to do the same type of work will be:

(a) 5 days
(b) 4 days
(c) 6 days
(d) 7 days

5. If a man walks 20 km at 5 km/hr, he will be late by 40 minutes. If he walks at 8 km per hr, how early from the fixed time will he reach?

(a) 15 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 50 minutes
(d) 30 minutes

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Answers:

1(c), 2(b), 3(b), 4(b), 5(c)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-41)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-41)


1. What is “Vishva Mohini”?

(a) Name for India’s Beauty Queen
(b) The title given to Lata Mangeshkar for her contribution to music
(c) An Indian ship
(d) A famous book on Indian dances

2. The main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is

(a) enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements
(b) facilitating multilateral trade relations of member countries and reviewing trade policies
(c) administering trade dispute settlement procedures
(d) None of the above

3. Name the author of the book A Passage to England

(a) E. M. Forster
(b) Nirad C. Choudhary
(c) Vikram Seth
(d) Eric Segal

4. The Indian Naval Ship being converted into a maritime museum is

(a) Sagar Samrat
(b) Kanishka
(c) Samrat Ashoka
(d) Vikrant

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Answers:

1(d), 2(b), 3(b), 4(d)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-40)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-40)


1. 50 men can dig 40 holes in 30 days. How long will 25 men take to dig 20 holes?

(a) 15 days
(b) 22½ days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days

2. If GOLD is written as IQNF, how WIND can be written in the code?

(a) YKPF
(b) VHMC
(c) XJOE
(d) DNIW

3. If A = 1, PAT = 37, then TAP = ?

(a) 73
(b) 37
(c) 36
(d) 38

4. If D = 4, BAD = 7, then what is the value of ANT = ?

(a) 8
(b) 17
(c) 35
(d) 37

5. If HKUJ means FISH, what does UVCD mean ?

(a) STAR
(b) STAB
(c) STAL
(d) STAK 

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Answers:

1(c), 2(a), 3(b), 4(c), 5(b)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-39)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-39)


1. The area of a circle is 38.5 sq. cm. Its circumference (in cm) is :

(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 32

2. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fourths of its length. If the area of the floor is 768 sq. m. then the difference between the length and breadth of the hall is

(a) 8 metres
(b) 12 metres
(c) 24 metres
(d) 32 metres

3. A metallic hemisphere is melted and recast in the shape of a cone with the same base radius (R) as that of the hemisphere. If H is the height of the cone, then

(a) H = 2R
(b) B=2R
(c) H = 3R
(d) B = 3R

4. A conical vessel whose internal radius is 12 cm and height 50 cm is full of liquid. The contents are emptied into a cylindrical vessel with radius (internal) 10 cm. The height to which the liquid rises in the cylindrical vessel is

(a) 25cm
(b) 20cm
(c) 24cm
(d) 22cm

5. Two right circular cylinders of equal volume have their heights in the ratio 1 : 2. The ratio of their radii is

(a) √2:1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 4

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Answers:

1(a), 2(a), 3(a), 4(c), 5(a)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-38)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-38)


Directions: From the given responses, find the missing number/date in the series.

1. 10, 100, 200, 310 ?

(a) 400
(b) 410
(c) 420
(d) 430

2. 4/12/95,1/1/96,29/l/96, 26/2/96,?

(a) 24/3/96
(b) 25/3/96
(c) 26/3/96
(d) 27/3/96

3. 2, 3, 10, 29, 66, ?

(a) 89
(b) 99
(c) 127
(d) 130

4. Five men A, B, C, D and E read a newspaper. The one who reads first gives it to C, the one who reads last had taken it from A. E was not the first or last to read. There were two readers between B and A. Find the person who read the newspaper last.

(a) E
(b) B
(c) D
(d) A

5. A is B’s daughter. B is C’s mother. D is C’s brother. How is D related to A ?

(a) Father
(b) Grandfather
(c) Brother
(d) Son

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Answers:

1(d), 2(b), 3(c), 4(c), 5(c)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-37)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-37)


1. Where are the Eucalyptus trees found in abundance?

(a) Mizo Hills
(b) Naga Hills
(c) Manipur Hills
(d) Nilgiri Hills

2. The first solar city of India, is:

(a) Anandpur Sahib
(b) Mumbai
(c) Bangalore
(d) Delhi

3. Postal voting is otherwise called

(a) plural voting
(b) proxy voting
(c) weighted voting
(d) secret voting

4. Stability of the Government is assured in

(a) Parliamentary Form of Government.
(b) Presidential Form of Government.
(c) Plural Executive System
(d) Direction Democracy

5. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within

(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 1 year

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Answers:

1(a), 2(a), 3(b), 4(b), 5(b)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-36)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-36)


Directions: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c),and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. Mr. Srinivasan is ___ to become Chairman of the group ____ the retirement of his father.

(a)  set, following
(b)  voted, subsequent
(c)  selected, despite
(d)  approved, because
(e)  decided, after.

2.  ___ to your error the ___ consignment has been delayed by a week.

(a)  According, important        
(b)  Duly, urgent
(c)  Owing, entire
(d)  Added, crucial

3.  On account of the ___ in sales the software firm has achieved an eight per cent ___ in net profit.

(a)  surge, fall
(b)  increase, rise
(c)  decline, slope
(d)  hike, loss

4. We are proud to say that today ___ 26 per cent of our total accounts are ___ by women and senior citizens.

(a)  approximate, held
(b)  nearly, authorised
(c)  over, maintain
(d)  above, open

5. The company has _____ special training to employees on _____ to trade online.

(a)  announced, benefits
(b)  offered, course
(c)  imparted, risks
(d)  sanction, skills

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Answers:

1(a), 2(c), 3(b), 4(d), 5(c)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-35)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-35)


1. An angle is equal to five times its supplement. Find its measure.

(a) 110°
(b) 140°
(c) 150°
(d) 100°

2. The supplement of an angle is one-fourth of itself. Determine the angle and its supplement.

(a) 132°, 48°
(b) 156°, 24°
(c) 118°, 62°
(d) 144°, 36°

3. Two complementary angles differ by 18°. Find the angles.

(a) 42°, 60°
(b) 36°, 54°
(c) 24°, 66°
(d) 18°, 72°

4. If two supplementary angles are in the ratio 1 : 5. Find the difference of the angles.

(a) 64°
(b) 90°
(c) 36°
(d) 70°

5. Find the value of k, if the distance between the points (1, 4), (k, 1) is 5.

(a) 3 or 5
(b) –3 or 5
(c) 3 or –5
(d) None of these

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Answers:

1(c), 2(d), 3(b), 4(b), 5(b)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-34)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-34)


1. 4   12   11   5

    6    7   10   3

    8    9   10   7

    7    5    ?    4

(a) 12  
(b) 14
(c) 13
(d) 8

2. 6  18   15

    3    2    5

    4    3    ?

  —   —   —

   8   27   9

(a) 2
(b) 11  
(c) 3
(d) 6

3. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

Z X _ T R _ N L J _ F D

(a) V P H B      
(b) V R H B
(c) U P J B     
(d) U P J D

4. Following a statement, conclusions I, II and III are given. Which one of the four alternatives is correct? 

Statement : Ministers arrived at the public function in their cars.

Conclusions

I. All ministers are rich
II. Ministers have cars.
III. Ministers came to the public function.

(a) Only II and III are implicit in the statement.
(b) Only I is implicit in the statement
(c) Only I and II are implicit in the statement
(d) Only III.and I are implicit in the statement.

5. Following a statement, conclusions I and II are given. Which one of the four alternatives is correct?

Statement: Philanthropes with their human compassion and zeal to help the needy have contributed to human welfare in every society.

Conclusions:

I. Rich persons are philanthropes
II.   Poor people cannot act as philanthropes.

(a) Only I is implicit in the statement.
(b) Both I and II are implicit
(c) Neither I nor II is implicit.
(d) Only II is implicit.
 

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Answers:

1(d), 2(c), 3(a), 4(a), 5(c)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-33)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-33)


1. Which Sufi’s dargah is at Ajmer ?

(a) Baba Farid
(b) Qutb-din Bakhtiyar Kaki
(c) Moinuddin Chisti
(d) Khwaja Bahuddin

2. Who was the architect who designed Taj Mahal’

(a) Mohammad Hussain
(b) Ustad-Isa
(c) Shah Abbas
(d) Ismail

3. Out of the following remains excavated in Indus Valley, which one indicates the commercial and economic development ?

(a) The Pottery
(b) Seals
(c) The Boats
(d) The Houses

4. To achieve high rates of growth of national output, the economy has to

(a) reduce the rate of growth of population
(b) borrow foreign capital
(c) step up the rate of savings
(d) increase the rate of investment and reduce the capital output ratio

5. The proceeds of income tax go to

(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Centre and States
(d) Corporation authorities
 

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Answers:

1(c), 2(b), 3(b), 4(c), 5(a)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-32)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-32)


Directions: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.

1.  The organization preferred (a)/ to hire locale (b)/ population as they understood the language (c)/ and customer preferences. (d)/ All correct. (5)

2.  In our opinion the existing (a)/ assessment (b)/ system required immediate (c)/ revision. (d)

3.  In responds (a)/ to the advertisement a sizeable (b)/ number of candidates have submitted (c)/ their applications. (d)

4.  There is no guarantee (a)/ that if this model is adopted (b)/ the entire (c)/ All correct. (d)

5.  With this unique (a)/initiative (b)/ the company hopes to sustain (c)/ its current (d)/ growth rate.
 

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Answers:

1(b), 2(a), 3(a), 4(d), 5(d)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-31)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-31)


1. If a : b = 7 : 9 and b : c = 15 : 7, then what is a : c?

(a) 5 : 3
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 7 : 21
(d) 7 : 15

2. By mistake, instead of dividing Rs. 117 among A, B and C in the ratio it was divided in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. Who gains the most and by how much?

(a) A, Rs. 28
(b) B, Rs. 3
(c) C, Rs. 20
(d) C, Rs. 25

3. A and B have money in the ratio 2 : 1. If A gives Rs. 2 to B, the money will be in the ratio 1 : 1. What were the initial amounts they had?

(a) Rs. 12 and Rs. 6
(b) Rs. 16 and Rs. 8
(c) Rs. 8 and Rs. 4
(d) Rs. 6 and Rs. 3

4. The incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio 3 : 7 : 4 and their expenses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 5. If A saves Rs. 300 out of an income of Rs. 2,400, the savings of B and C are

(a) Rs. 4.025 and Rs. 575
(b) Rs. 1.575 and Rs 2.625
(c) Rs. 2.750 and Rs. 1.525
(d) Rs. 3.725 and Rs. 1.525

5. Find the measure of an angle which is a complement of itself.

(a) 45°
(b) 36°
(c) 42°
(d) 35°

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Answers:

1(a), 2(d), 3(c), 4(a), 5(a)

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SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-30)

SSC CPO EXAM


SSC CPO Exam Model Questions (SET-30)


Directions: From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set.

1. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

Z X _ T R _ N L J _ F D

(a) V P H B
(b) V R H B
(c) U P J B
(d) U P J D

Directions: From the given responses, find the missing number/date in the series.

2.
10, 100, 200, 310 ?

(a) 400
(b) 410
(c) 420
(d) 430

3.
4/12/95,1/1/96,29/l/96, 26/2/96,?

(a) 24/3/96
(b) 25/3/96
(c) 26/3/96
(d) 27/3/96

4.
2, 3, 10, 29, 66, ?

(a) 89
(b) 99
(c) 127
(d) 130

5. A man starts from a point and walks 2 km towards the north.. He turns right and walks 3 km. Then he turns left and travels 2 km. What is the direction he is now facing?

(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) North

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Answers:

1(a), 2(d), 3(b), 4(c), 5(d)

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