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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 04-June-2019 Shift-1 (General Awareness)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 04-June-2019 Shift-1

(General Awareness)



(General Awareness)

Q.1 ' Thoda' a sport dance belongs to which of the following states?
1. Sikkim
2. Haryana
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer : . Himachal Pradesh

Q.2 Which country was the first to implement Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
1. France
2. Germany
3. Canada
4. USA

Correct Answer : France

Q.3 इकोनॉमिस्ट इंटेलिजेंस यूनिट रिपोर्ट  'वर्ल्ड वाइड कॉस्ट ऑफ़ लिविंग; सर्वे  2019' के अनुसार  , निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शहर भारत के तीन सबसे सस्ते  शहर में  से एक नहीं  है?
1. चेन्नई 
2. मुंबई 
3. नई दिल्ली 
4. बंगाल 

Correct Answer : मुंबई 

Q.4 The Tata Iron and Steel company (TISCO) was established by Dorabji Tata in:
1. 1911
2. 1907
3. 1913
4. 1919

Correct Answer : 1907

Q.5 Who was the first female Director General of Police in Puducherry?
1. Kiran Bedi
2. Kanchan Choudhary
3. Sundari Nanda
4. Aswathy Tonge

Correct Answer : Sundari Nanda

Q.6 Which gas in its solid state is also known as dry ice?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Correct Answer : Carbon dioxide

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Crash Course for SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam

Study Kit for SSC CGL EXAM

Q.7 The Malimath Committee Report deals with:
1. judicial delays
2. stock market reforms
3. textile sector reforms
4. criminal justice system reforms

Correct Answer :  criminal justice system reforms

Q.8 The Indian National Association was established in 1876 by ______ in Calcutta.
1. V K Chiplunkar
2. Anand Mohan Bose
3. Sisir Kumar Ghosh
4. Badruddin Tyabji

Correct Answer : Anand Mohan Bose

Q.9 Which of the following places was ruled by the Wadiyar dynasty?
1. Guwahati
2. Patna
3. Jabalpur
4. Mysore

Correct Answer : Mysore

Q.10 Which of the following elements is a metalloid?
1. Silicon
2. Bismuth
3. Tin
4. Phosphorus

Correct Answer : Silicon

Q.11 Methyl propane is an isomer of:
1. n-pentane
2. n-butane
3. n-propane
4. n-hexane

Correct Answer : n-butane

Q.12 Name the first ever judge of the Supreme Court against whom the motion of impeachment was introduced into Parliament in Independent India.
1. Justice Mahajan
2. Justice Subba Rao
3. Justice Viraswami
4. Justice Ramaswami

Correct Answer : Justice Ramaswami

Q.13 Sundari, a well known species of trees, is found in:
1. tropical deciduous forests
2. mangrove forests
3. Himalayan mountains
4. tropical rainforests

Correct Answer : mangrove forests

Q.14 Which of the following is mined in the Badampahar mines of Odisha?
1. Bauxite
2. Dolomite
3. Azurite
4. Hematite

Correct Answer :  Hematite

Q.15 Which queen died fighting Mughal armies while defending Garha Katanga in 1564?
1. Rani Durgavati
2. Rani Ahilyabai
3. Rani Rudrambara
4. Rani Avantibai

Correct Answer : Rani Durgavati

Q.16 Who attacked and looted the famous Somnath temple in 1026 AD?
1. Mahmud of Ghazni
2. Muhammad Ghori
3. Nadir Shah
4. Genghis Khan

Correct Answer : Mahmud of Ghazni

Q.17 The property of catenation is predominant in_______.
1. silicon
2. nitrogen
3. sulphur
4. carbon

Correct Answer : carbon

Q.18 .बुरी आत्माओं को भागने के लिए बौद्धों द्वारा किया जाने वाला ___नृत्य हिमाचल प्रदेश के नृत्य का एक  रूप में है 

1. नाट्य 
2. धाम
3. छम
4. गोगरा

Correct Answer : छम

Q.19 मूसी  तथा भीमा ____ नदी  की  सहायक नदियां है 

1.कावेरी 
2.ब्रह्मपुत्र 
3.महानदी 
4.कृष्णा 

Correct Answer : कृष्णा 

Q.20 जे जे थॉमसन को ____ की  खोज के लिए भौतकी  में  नोबेल पुरस्कार  प्राप्त  हुआ।
1. प्रोट्रान 
2. इलेक्ट्रान 
3. न्युट्रान 
4. पॉज़िट्रॉन्स 

Correct Answer : इलेक्ट्रान 

Q.21. __________ फेसबकु के संस्थापक है ।
1. जिमि वेल्स 
2. मार्क जुकरबर्ग 
3. ब्रायन ऐक्टन 
4. लैरी  पेज

Correct Answer : मार्क जुकरबर्ग 

Q.22 मार्च , 2019 मनोहर पर्रिकर के नधन के बाद गोवा के नए मुख्यमंत्री के रूप में शपथ ली ?
1. वसुंधरा  राजे
2. अशोक गहलोत
3. प्रमोद सावंत
4. एच डी कुमारस्वामी 

Correct Answer : प्रमोद सावंत

Q.23 ओलंपक काउंसिल ऑफ एशिया (ओसीए) ने ____ को 2018 में हटाए जाने के बाद हांजो, चीन में आयोजित होने वाले एशयाई खेल, 2022 में फिर से शुरू  करने का फैसला किया हैI
1. फ़ुटबॉल
2. वॉलीबॉल
3. फेंसिंग 
4. क्रिकेट 

Correct Answer : क्रिकेट 

Q.24 The ____ edition of the India-Indonesia coordinated patrol (IND-INDO CORPAT) held from 19 March to 4th April 2019 was inaugurated at Port Blair, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
1. 23rd
2. 45th
3. 33rd
4. 42nd

Correct Answer : 33rd

Q.25 The lone gold medal for India was won by ____________ at the 38th GeeBee Boxing Tournament held at Helsinki, Finland.
1. Naveen Kumar
2. Kavinder Singh Bisht
3. Shiva Thapa
4. Mohammed Hussamuddin

Correct Answer : Kavinder Singh Bisht

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General: 

परीक्षा पैटर्न (Exam Pattern) एस.एस.सी संयुक्त उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्तरीय SSC CHSL परीक्षा



परीक्षा पैटर्न (Exam Pattern) एस.एस.सी संयुक्त उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्तरीय SSC CHSL परीक्षा



कर्मचारी चयन आयोग (SSC)

कर्मचारी चयन आयोग (SSC) अखिल भारतीय आधार पर 7-01- 2017 से 05-02-2017 तक प्रारंभिक परीक्षा आयोजित कर रहा है। इस परीक्षा में पोस्टल असिस्टेंट / सॉर्टिंग असिस्टेंट और कोर्ट क्लर्क के रूप में कुछ नए पद शुरू किए गए हैं।

CHSL टियर- II में 100 अंकों का एक वर्णनात्मक पेपर है। ऑफ़लाइन मोड में समय सीमा 60 मिनट की है। इस परीक्षा में न्यूनतम योग्यता अंक 33 प्रतिशत हैं।

नोट: जो लोग डिस्क्रिप्टिव टेस्ट (टियर- II) को क्लियर करते हैं, उन्हें स्किल और टाइपिंग टेस्ट (टियर- III) के लिए बुलाया जाएगा।

मॉडल प्रश्न

1. “कीमतों को नियंत्रित करने और आवश्यक वस्तुओं की उपलब्धता में सुधार” के लिए वित्त मंत्री को 200 शब्दों में एक पत्र लिखें।

2. भारत में डिमोनेटाइजेशन पर लगभग 250 शब्दों में एक निबंध लिखें।

Printed Study Kit for SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam

एसएससी - सीएचएसएल परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री

General: 

पाठ्यक्रम (Syllabus) एस.एस.सी संयुक्त उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्तरीय SSC CHSL परीक्षा



पाठ्यक्रम (Syllabus) एस.एस.सी संयुक्त उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्तरीय SSC CHSL परीक्षा



कंप्यूटर आधारित परीक्षा की तिथियां (टियर- I) भाग विषय (अनुक्रम में नहीं) प्रश्नों की संख्या / अधिकतम अंक समय अवधि (सभी चार भागों के लिए)

01-07-2019 to 26-07-2019

I

अंग्रेजी भाषा (बेसिक नॉलेज)

25/ 50

60 मिनट (पैरा 8.1 और 8.2 के अनुसार स्क्रिब के लिए योग्य उम्मीदवारों के लिए 80 मिनट)

II

सामान्य बुद्धि

25/ 50

III

मात्रात्मक योग्यता (बुनियादी अंकगणितीय कौशल)

25/ 50

IV

सामान्य जागरूकता

25/ 50

13.5.1 टियर- I परीक्षा में वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रकार, बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न होंगे। प्रश्न भाग- II, III और IV के लिए अंग्रेजी और हिंदी दोनों में सेट किए जाएंगे।

13.5.2 प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर के लिए 0.50 अंक की नकारात्मक अंकन होगा।

13.5.3 उत्तर कुंजी, कंप्यूटर आधारित परीक्षा के बाद, आयोग की वेबसाइट (https://ssc.gov.in) पर रखी जाएगी। उत्तर कुंजियों के अपलोडिंग के समय आयोग द्वारा निर्धारित समय सीमा के भीतर प्राप्त उत्तर कुंजी के बारे में किसी भी प्रतिनिधित्व की जांच की जाएगी और इस संबंध में आयोग का निर्णय अंतिम होगा। उत्तर कुंजी के बारे में कोई प्रतिनिधित्व मनोरंजन नहीं किया जाएगा, बाद में।

13.5.4 टियर -1 में अभ्यर्थियों द्वारा बनाए गए अंकों को आयोग द्वारा प्रकाशित फार्मूला के माध्यम से सूचना क्रमांक: 1-1 / 2018- P & P-I दिनांक 07-02-2019 से सामान्यीकृत किया जाएगा और इस तरह के सामान्यीकृत अंकों का उपयोग किया जाएगा।
अंतिम योग्यता और कट-ऑफ अंक निर्धारित करें।

कंप्यूटर आधारित परीक्षा (टियर- I) के लिए सांकेतिक पाठ्यक्रम:

अंग्रेजी भाषा:

त्रुटि, रिक्त स्थान, पर्यायवाची / विलोम, विलोम, वर्तनी / गलत शब्दों का पता लगाना, मुहावरे और वाक्यांश, एक शब्द प्रतिस्थापन, वाक्य में सुधार, क्रिया की सक्रिय / निष्क्रिय आवाज, रूपांतरण में भरें।
प्रत्यक्ष / अप्रत्यक्ष कथन, वाक्य भागों का फेरबदल, एक मार्ग में वाक्यों का फेरबदल, क्लोज पैसेज, कॉम्प्रिहेंशन पैसेज।

सामान्य बुद्धि:

इसमें मौखिक और गैर-मौखिक दोनों प्रकार के प्रश्न शामिल होंगे। परीक्षण में सिमेंटिक सादृश्य, प्रतीकात्मक परिचालनों, प्रतीकात्मक / संख्या सादृश्य, प्रवृत्तियाँ, चित्रात्मक सादृश्य, अंतरिक्ष अभिविन्यास, शब्दार्थ वर्गीकरण, वेन आरेख, संख्या / संख्या वर्गीकरण, आरेखण संदर्भ, चित्रण वर्गीकरण, छिद्रित छेद / पैटर्न-तह और खुलासा पर प्रश्न शामिल होंगे। , सिमेंटिक सीरीज़, फिगरल पैटर्न-फोल्डिंग एंड कम्प्लीशन, नंबर सीरीज़, एंबेडेड फिगर्स, फिगरल सीरीज़, क्रिटिकल थिंकिंग, प्रॉब्लम सॉल्विंग, इमोशनल इंटेलिजेंस, वर्ड बिल्डिंग, सोशल इंटेलिजेंस, कोडिंग और डी-कोडिंग, अन्य सब-टॉपिक्स, अगर कोई न्यूमेरिकल ऑपरेशंस ।

मात्रात्मक रूझान:

संख्या प्रणाली: संपूर्ण संख्या की गणना, दशमलव और भिन्न, संख्याओं के बीच संबंध।

मौलिक अंकगणितीय संचालन: प्रतिशत, अनुपात और अनुपात, वर्गमूल, लाभ, ब्याज (सरल और यौगिक), लाभ और हानि, छूट, भागीदारी व्यवसाय, मिश्रण और आरोप, समय और दूरी, समय और काम।

बीजगणित: स्कूल बीजगणित और प्राथमिक surds (सरल समस्याओं) और रेखीय समीकरणों के रेखांकन की मूल बीजगणितीय पहचान।

ज्यामिति: प्राथमिक ज्यामितीय आंकड़ों और तथ्यों के साथ परिचित: त्रिभुज और इसके विभिन्न प्रकार के केंद्र, त्रिकोण की वृत्तियाँ, समता और समानता, वृत्त और इसके जीवा, स्पर्शरेखा, कोण एक वृत्त के जीवा द्वारा संयोजित, दो या दो से अधिक हलकों के लिए आम।

क्षेत्रमिति: त्रिभुज, चतुर्भुज, नियमित बहुभुज, वृत्त, दायाँ प्रिज़्म, दायाँ सर्कुलर कोन, राईट सर्कुलर सिलिंडर, स्फीयर, हेमिस्फेरेस, रेक्टेंगुलर पैरलेलेपिप्ड, ट्राइएंगुलर या स्क्वायर बेस वाला रेगुलर पिरामिड।

त्रिकोणमिति: त्रिकोणमिति, त्रिकोणमितीय अनुपात, पूरक कोण, ऊँचाई और दूरियाँ (सरल समस्याएँ) मानक पहचान जैसे पाप २ ?? + Cos2 ?? = 1 आदि।,

सांख्यिकीय चार्ट: टेबल्स और ग्राफ़ का उपयोग: हिस्टोग्राम, फ्रीक्वेंसी बहुभुज, बार-आरेख, पाई-चार्ट।

सामान्य जागरूकता:

प्रश्न उसके और उसके समाज के लिए पर्यावरण के बारे में उम्मीदवार की सामान्य जागरूकता का परीक्षण करने के लिए डिज़ाइन किए गए हैं। प्रश्न वर्तमान घटनाओं के ज्ञान और उनके वैज्ञानिक पहलू में रोजमर्रा के अवलोकन और अनुभव के ऐसे मामलों का परीक्षण करने के लिए डिज़ाइन किए गए हैं जो एक शिक्षित व्यक्ति से उम्मीद की जा सकती है। परीक्षण में भारत और उसके पड़ोसी देशों से संबंधित प्रश्न भी शामिल होंगे, विशेष रूप से इतिहास, संस्कृति, भूगोल, आर्थिक दृश्य, सामान्य नीति और वैज्ञानिक अनुसंधान से संबंधित।
40% और इससे अधिक दृश्य विकलांगता वाले वीएच उम्मीदवारों के लिए, जनरल इंटेलिजेंस और क्वांटिटेटिव में मैप्स / ग्राफ़ / डायग्राम / स्टैटिस्टिकल डेटा का कोई घटक नहीं होगा।

Printed Study Kit for SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam

एसएससी - सीएचएसएल परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री

 

General: 

आवेदन कैसे करे (How To Apply)  एस.एस.सी संयुक्त उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्तरीय SSC CHSL परीक्षा



आवेदन कैसे करे (How To Apply)  एस.एस.सी संयुक्त उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्तरीय SSC CHSL परीक्षा



ऑनलाइन आवेदन जमा करने की प्रक्रिया

आवेदन केवल एसएससी मुख्यालय की आधिकारिक वेबसाइट यानी https://ssc.nic.in पर ऑनलाइन मोड में प्रस्तुत किए जाने चाहिए। विस्तृत निर्देशों के लिए, कृपया इस सूचना के अनुबंध- I और अनुबंध- II देखें।
ऑनलाइन आवेदन जमा करने की अंतिम तिथि 05-04-2019 (शाम 5.00 बजे) है।
उम्मीदवारों को अपने स्वयं के हित में सलाह दी जाती है कि वे अंतिम तिथि से बहुत पहले ऑनलाइन आवेदन प्रस्तुत करें और डिस्कनेक्ट / अक्षमता की संभावना से बचने के लिए अंतिम तिथि तक प्रतीक्षा न करें या वेबसाइट पर भारी लोड के कारण एसएससी की वेबसाइट पर लॉगिन करने में विफलता। समापन के दिन।
आयोग उक्त कारणों के आधार पर या आयोग के नियंत्रण से परे किसी अन्य कारण से अंतिम तिथि के भीतर अपने आवेदन प्रस्तुत करने में सक्षम नहीं होने वाले उम्मीदवारों के लिए किसी भी जिम्मेदारी को स्वीकार नहीं करता है।
2. ऑनलाइन आवेदन वेबसाइट http://ssconline.nic.in पर किए जा सकते हैं। उम्मीदवार को किसी भी प्रविष्टि या चयन के विकल्पों से पहले इस नोटिस में दिए गए निर्देशों को ध्यान से पढ़ना चाहिए। ऑनलाइन फॉर्म भरते समय उम्मीदवार सभी आवश्यक विवरण प्रदान करें। अनिवार्य फ़ील्ड * (तारांकन) चिह्न के साथ चिह्नित हैं। ऑनलाइन आवेदन भरने में दो भाग होते हैं:

पंजीकरण भाग (पहले दर्ज नहीं किए गए मामले में)
आवेदन भाग
3. पंजीकरण भाग में, उम्मीदवारों को बुनियादी जानकारी भरनी होगी। विवरण प्रस्तुत करने पर, उम्मीदवारों को विवरणों की जांच करने और पंजीकरण में कोई सुधार करने के लिए प्रेरित किया जाएगा।

4. इसके बाद रजिस्ट्रेशन आईडी और पासवर्ड वाला पेज दिखाई देगा। पंजीकरण आईडी और पासवर्ड को नोट करें और इसे सुरक्षित रूप से रखें। आवेदन प्रक्रिया आवेदन के भाग के बिना अधूरी है। आवेदन भाग में भुगतान विवरण भरने, फोटोग्राफ अपलोड करने और स्कैन किए गए हस्ताक्षर की आवश्यकता होती है। ऑन-लाइन आवेदन तभी पूरा होगा जब स्कैन किए गए हस्ताक्षर और फोटो निर्देशानुसार अपलोड किए गए हों।

5. नकद में शुल्क का भुगतान करने के लिए, उम्मीदवारों को आवेदन भाग पूरा होने के बाद ऑनलाइन उत्पन्न चालान का प्रिंट-आउट लेना चाहिए और भारतीय स्टेट बैंक की वेतन शाखा में अपेक्षित शुल्क जमा करना चाहिए और फिर निर्धारित तिथि और समय के भीतर जारी रखना चाहिए।

6. तस्वीरों की फ़ाइल का डिजिटल आकार 30 केबी से अधिक और 100 पिक्सेल चौड़ाई और 120 पिक्सेल ऊँचाई के रिज़ॉल्यूशन के साथ 50 केबी से कम होना चाहिए।

7. हस्ताक्षर को jpg प्रारूप में अपलोड किया जाना चाहिए। हस्ताक्षर फ़ाइल का डिजिटल आकार 1 केबी से अधिक और 12 पिक्सेल से कम होना चाहिए जिसमें 140 पिक्सेल चौड़ाई 60 पिक्सेल ऊँचाई होगी।

8. उम्मीदवारों को सलाह दी जाती है कि वे आवेदन पत्र भरने से पहले निर्देशों को ध्यान से देखें।

9. आवेदन पत्र में किसी भी विशेष में परिवर्तन / सुधार के लिए अनुरोध किसी भी परिस्थिति में मनोरंजन नहीं किया जाएगा। कर्मचारी चयन आयोग, जो भी कारण हो सकते हैं, किसी भी विशेष रूप से भरे गए आवेदन पत्र में किसी भी सुधार / जोड़ / विलोपन की गैर स्वीकृति से उत्पन्न किसी भी परिणाम के लिए जिम्मेदार नहीं होंगे।

10. फोटोग्राफ / हस्ताक्षर के बिना या धुंधले फोटोग्राफ / हस्ताक्षर के साथ या किसी भी तरीके से अपूर्ण आवेदन पत्र को सरसरी तौर पर खारिज कर दिया जाएगा।

 

Printed Study Kit for SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam

एसएससी - सीएचएसएल परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री

 

General: 

(Download) SSC : Stenographers Grade C&D Exam Paper Held On 16.10. 2011 (General Intelligence)

SSC Stenographers  (Grade C&D) Exam Paper 2011

Download SSC Stenographers (Grade C&D) Exam Paper (Held On 16.10.2011)

(First Sitting)

(Part – I General Intelligence)

Directions: In questions no. 1 to 7, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.

1. Hard : Soft : : ?

(a) Blue : Red
(b) Bold : Successful
(c) Beautiful : Ugly
(d) Kind : Helpful

2. Sphere : Cube : : Circle : ?

(a) Round
(b) Square
(c) Ring
(d) Oval

3. Wood : Table : : ? : Knife

(a) Fork
(b) Chair
(c) Steel
(d) Saw

4. JLN: SQO: PRT : ?

(a) UYW
(b) UTV
(c) YWU
(d) VUT

5. ACEG: ZXVT : : BDFH: ?

(a) YVWS
(b) YSWU
(c) YWSU
(d) YWUS

6. CE : 70 : : DS : ?

(a) 90
(b) 60
(c) 120
(d) 210

7. 36 : 64 : : ? : 81

(a) 49
(b) 64
(c) 100
(d) 121

Directions: In questions no. 8 to 15, select the one which is different from the other three  responses.

8. (a) Victory –Defeat
(b) Pretty –Handsome
(c) Loss – Gain
(d) Safe –Danger

9. (a) Elephant
(b) Man
(c) Whale
(d) Hawk

10. (a) Sneeze
(b) Hiccup
(c) Yawn
(d) Respiration

11. (a) ACE
(b) LOR
(c) GIK
(d) VXZ

12. (a) BDFH
(b) JLNP
(c) RTVX
(d) ACEG

13. (a) 99
(b) 63
(c) 45
(d) 21

14. (a) 8 – 48
(b) 9 – 54
(c) 12 – 72
(d) 14 – 74

15. (a) 6 – 13 – 2 4
(b) 12 – 19 – 30
(c) 18 – 25 – 34
(d) 21 – 31 – 42

Click Here To Download Full Paper

Printed Study Kit for SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’) Examination (Paper - 1)

एसएससी स्टेनोग्राफर ग्रेड - सी & डी पेपर - 1 परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री (Paper - 1)

Important Links:

SSC Stenographers Syllabus

Study Material for Stenographers Grade 'C' and 'D' Examination

एसएससी स्टेनोग्राफर ग्रेड - सी & डी पेपर - 1 परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री

Taxonomy upgrade extras: 

(Download) SSC : Stenographers Grade C&D Exam Paper Held On 16.10. 2011 (General Awareness)

SSC Stenographers  (Grade C&D) Exam Paper 2011

Download SSC Stenographers  (Grade C&D) Exam Paper (Held On 16.10.2011)

(First Sitting)

(Part – II General Awareness)

1. The Nobel Prize for Economics was instituted by

(a) Alfred Nobel
(b) Sweden’s central bank
(c) The Nobel Committee
(d) World Bank

2. The main competitor for the Indian jute industry is

(a) China
(b) Nepal
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Japan

3. ‘Hire and Fire’ is the policy of

(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Mixed Economy
(d) Traditional Economy

4. The latest volume of food grains to be given par family as determined under ‘Annapurna Scheme’ is

(a) 35 kg
(b) 20 kg
(c) 10 kg
(d) 40 kg

5. The fish catch by Indian fishermen in the international waters are part of the GDP of

(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India and Sri Lanka
(c) India
(d) India and Indonesia

6. The essential feature of democracy is giving prominence to the

(a) Executive
(b) Judiciary
(c) Citizen
(d) Civil Society

7. Which of the following writs can lie only against a person holding a public office?

(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari

8. Which of the following items is under the State List?

(a) Agriculture
(b) Criminal law
(c) Education
(d) Defence

9. ‘Dual citizenship’ is a feature of

(a) Unitary government
(b) Federal government
(c) Parliamentary government
(d) Presidential government

10. In the Constitution of India, which Article mentions about the establishment of Welfare State in India?

(a) 99
(b) 39
(c) 59
(d) 69

11. The Greek were driven out of Indian by

(a) Chandra gupta Maurya
(b) Chandra gupta Vikramaditya
(c) Ashoka
(d) Bindusara

12. Sulatana Razia Begumwas the daughter of

(a) Baldan
(b) Qutub-ud-dinAibak
(c) Ilutmish
(d) Rukn-ud-din

13. Who among the following establishment the Ghadar Party?

(a) V.D. Savarkar
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Chandrashekhar Azad

14. Mahatama Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930 from

(a) Sabarmati Asharam
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Probandar
(d) Dandi

15. Who among the following was the first Viceroy of India?

(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Pitt
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Robert Clive

Click Here To Download Full Paper

Printed Study Kit for SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’) Examination (Paper - 1)

एसएससी स्टेनोग्राफर ग्रेड - सी & डी पेपर - 1 परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री (Paper - 1)

Important Links:

SSC Stenographers Syllabus

Study Material for Stenographers Grade 'C' and 'D' Examination

एसएससी स्टेनोग्राफर ग्रेड - सी & डी पेपर - 1 परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री

Taxonomy upgrade extras: 

(Download) SSC : Stenographers Grade C&D Exam Paper Held On 16.10. 2011 (English Language)

SSC Stenographers  (Grade C&D) Exam Paper 2011

Download SSC Stenographers  (Grade C&D) Exam Paper (Held On 16.10.2011)

(First Sitting)

(Part – III English Language & Comprehension)

Directions: In question out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

1. Absolutely

(a) partly
(b) really
(c) entirely
(d) exclusively

2. Penury

(a) bribery
(b) injury
(c) poverty
(d) penalty

3. Negligent

(a) ignorant
(b) unimportant
(c) careless
(d) cheat

4. Impromptu

(a) unrehearsed
(b) uninfluenced
(c) unconvincing
(d) improbable

5. Erudite

(a) snobbish
(b) scholarly
(c) saintly
(d) secretive

Directions: In question choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

6. Conclude

(a) preclude
(b) commence
(c) seclude
(d) finish

7. Virtue

(a) truth
(b) vice
(c) wisdom
(d) idiocy

8. Notorious

(a) famous
(b) popular
(c) eminent
(d) distinguished

9. Particular

(a) usual
(b) random
(c) general
(d) any

10. Cheer

(a) fear
(b) threat
(c) abuse
(d) decry

Directions: In questions fur alternative are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

11. To keep the wolf away from the door

(a) to avoid a bad person
(b) to clean the house
(c) to avoid extreme poverty
(d) to visit the zoo

12. To break the ice

(a) to clear the snow
(b) to start quarreling
(c) to commence an interaction
(d) to revive old enmity

13. To pull strings

(a) to tease
(b) to play with ropes
(c) to exert hidden influence
(d) to play music

14. Spick and span

(a) neat and clean
(b) hard-working
(c) kitchen implements
(d) calm and quiet

15. The pros and cons

(a) good and evil
(b) first and last
(c) fair and foul
(d) for and against

Click Here To Download Full Paper

Printed Study Kit for SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’) Examination (Paper - 1)

एसएससी स्टेनोग्राफर ग्रेड - सी & डी पेपर - 1 परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री (Paper - 1)

Important Links:

SSC Stenographers Syllabus

Study Material for Stenographers Grade 'C' and 'D' Examination

एसएससी स्टेनोग्राफर ग्रेड - सी & डी पेपर - 1 परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री

Taxonomy upgrade extras: 

(Cut-Off) SSC CGL (Tier -2) 2018 Exam



(Cut-Off) SSC CGL (Tier -2) 2018 Exam



The Staff Selection Commission had conducted Computer Based Examination for Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination – 2018 from 11.09.2019 to 14.09.2019 at various centres across the country.

2. As per the provisions of the Notice of Examination, aggregate marks secured by the candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II have been considered for short-listing the candidates to appear in Tier-III.

3. Paper-I and Paper-II of Tier-II Examination were conducted in multiple shifts, therefore, marks scored by the candidates in Paper-I and Paper-II have been normalized as per the formula published by the Commission on its website on 07.02.2019. Such normalized marks have been used to qualify the candidates for the next stage of Examination (i.e. Tier-III).

4. Based on the aggregate marks scored by the candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II examinations, candidates have been shortlisted, category-wise, to appear in Tier-III Examination. Separate cut-offs have been fixed for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer (List-1), Junior Statistical Officer in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (List-2) and all other posts (List-3).

5. Details of candidates qualifying for appearing in Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2018 (Tier-III) are as follows:

List-1:  Candidates qualified for appearing in Tier-III for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer: 

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

OH

HH

Other PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks [Tier 1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II+IV)]

463.15

460.21

510.92

572.51

409.26

347.35

168.04

 

Candidates Available

841

421

1724

1762*

111

100

50

5009

 

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 92-SC, 17-ST, 774-OBC and 1-OH candidates  qualifying  at  UR  standard  have  been  shown  under  their  respective categories. 

List-2:  Candidates  qualified  for  appearing  in  Tier-III  for  the post  of  Junior Statistical Officer (JSO):

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

OH

HH

VH

Other PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks  [(Tier 1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II+III)]

433.95

403.95

517.76

535.86

348.50

223.46

267.51

165.04

 

Candidates Available

478

301

583

955*

112

106

121

16

2672

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 37-SC, 10-ST, 421-OBC, 3-OH and 4-VH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

List-3: Candidates qualified for appearing in Tier-III for the posts other than Assistant Audit Officer, Assistant Accounts Officer and Junior Statistical Officer:

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks [(Tier

1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II)]

354.74

327.05

400.33

433.00

255.12

302.50

165.73

280.98

122.58

 

Candidates Available

8050

4022

15359

17439*

3244

859

777

404

86

50240

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 1320-SC, 361-ST, 8373-OBC, 44-OH, 4-HH and 22-VH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

Note-I: After excluding common candidates, 50293 candidates are qualifying for appearing in Tier-III Examination.

Note-II: Candidates qualifying in more than one list need to appear in Tier-III Examination only once.

6. The Tier-III (Descriptive Examination) is scheduled to be held on 29.12.2019. The status of city of examination and Admission Certificates of the qualified candidates will be uploaded on the websites of the respective Regional Offices approximately 15 days and 04 days respectively before the conduct of the Tier-III Examination. However, the candidates who are unable to download their Admission Certificates   may   contact   the   concerned   Regional   Offices   immediately.   The responsibility for timely download of the Admission Certificates lies solely with the candidates.

7. Representations received from the candidates about the answer keys have been carefully examined and the answer keys have been modified wherever necessary. The modified answer keys have been used for evaluation.

8. Marks of the qualified/ non-qualified candidates and Final Answer Keys along with the Question Paper(s) in a standard format will be hosted on the website of the Commission shortly.
 

Click Here for Official Cut-Off

Study Kit for SSC CGL (Tier-2) Exam

General: 

(Result) SSC CGL (Tier -2) 2018 Declaration of result for appearing in Tier-III 



(Result) SSC CGL (Tier -2) 2018 Declaration of result for appearing in Tier-III 



The Staff Selection Commission had conducted Computer Based Examination for Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination – 2018 from 11.09.2019 to 14.09.2019 at various centres across the country. 

2. As per the provisions of the Notice of Examination, aggregate marks secured by the candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II have been considered for short-listing the candidates to appear in Tier-III.

3. Paper-I and Paper-II of Tier-II Examination were conducted in multiple shifts,therefore, marks scored by the candidates in Paper-I and Paper-II have been normalized as per the formula published by the Commission on its website on 07.02.2019. Such normalized marks have been used to qualify the candidates for the next stage of Examination (i.e. Tier-III).

4. Based on the aggregate marks scored by the candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II examinations, candidates have been shortlisted, category-wise, to appear in Tier-III Examination. Separate cut-offs have been fixed for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer (List-1), Junior Statistical Officer in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (List-2) and all other posts (List-3).

5. Details of candidates qualifying for appearing in Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2018 (Tier-III) are as follows:

List-1: Candidates qualified for appearing in Tier-III for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer:

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

OH

HH

Other

PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks [Tier 1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II+IV)]

463.15

460.21

510.92

572.51

409.26

347.35

168.04

 

Candidates Available

841

421

1724

1762*

111

100

50

5009

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 92-SC, 17-ST, 774-OBC and 1-OH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

List-2: Candidates qualified for appearing in Tier-III for the post of Junior Statistical Officer (JSO):

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

OH

HH

VH

Other PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks  [(Tier

1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II+III)]

433.95

403.95

517.76

535.86

348.50

223.46

267.51

165.04

 

Candidates Available

478

301

583

955*

112

106

121

16

2672

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 37-SC, 10-ST, 421-OBC, 3-OH and 4-VH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

List-3: Candidates qualified for appearing in Tier-III for the posts other than Assistant Audit Officer, Assistant Accounts Officer and Junior Statistical Officer:

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks

[(Tier 1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II)]

354.74

327.05

400.33

433.00

255.12

302.50

165.73

280.98

122.58

 

Candidates Available

8050

4022

15359

17439*

3244

859

777

404

86

50240

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 1320-SC, 361-ST, 8373-OBC, 44-OH, 4-HH and 22-VH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

Note-I: After excluding common candidates, 50293 candidates are qualifying for appearing in Tier-III Examination.

Note-II: Candidates qualifying in more than one list need to appear in Tier-III Examination only once.

6. The Tier-III (Descriptive Examination) is scheduled to be held on 29.12.2019. The status of city of examination and Admission Certificates of the qualified candidates will be uploaded on the websites of the respective Regional Offices approximately 15 days and 04 days respectively before the conduct of the Tier-III Examination. However, the candidates who are unable to download their Admission Certificates   may   contact   the   concerned   Regional   Offices   immediately. The responsibility for timely download of the Admission Certificates lies solely with the candidates.

7.Representations received from the candidates about the answer keys have been carefully examined and the answer keys have been modified wherever necessary. The modified answer keys have been used for evaluation.

8.   Marks of the qualified/ non-qualified candidates and Final Answer Keys along with the Question Paper(s) in a standard format will be hosted on the website of the Commission shortly.

Click Here for Official Result List-I

Click Here for Official Result List-II

Click Here for Official Result List-III

Study Kit for SSC CGL (Tier-2) Exam

General: 

(Notification) SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Exam - 2019


(Notification) SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Exam - 2019



F. No. 3/4/2019-P&P-I (Vol.-I): Staff Selection Commission will hold the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2019 for filling up of various Group “B” and Group “C” posts in different Ministries/ Departments/ Organizations. The details of the examination are as follows:

Details of the Posts:

Followings are the likely posts that will be filled up through this Examination:

2.1 Pay Level-8 (Rs 47600 to 151100):

S No

Name of Post

Ministry/ Department/  Office/ Cadre

Classification of Posts

Nature of Physical Disabilities permissible for the post

Age Limit

1

Assistant  Audit

Officer

Indian Audit & Accounts Department under C&AG

Group “B” Gazetted   (Non

Ministerial)

OH (OA, OL, BL) & HH

Not  exceeding

30 years.

2

Assistant Accounts

Officer

Indian Audit  Accounts  Department under C&AG

Group “B” Gazetted   (Non

Ministerial)

OH (OA, OL, BL) & HH

Not  exceeding

30 years.

2.2 Pay Level-7 (Rs 44900 to 142400):

 

S No

Name of Post

Ministry/Department/ Office/ Cadre

Classificationof Posts

Nature of Physical Disabilities permissible for the post

Age Limit

3

Assistant Section Officer

Central SecretariatService

Group “B”

OA, OL, B, BL, OAL, LV &HH

20-30 years

4

AssistantSection  Officer

Intelligence vBureau

Group “B”

Post not identified suitable for

PwD candidates.

Not  exceeding

30 years.

5

Assistant  Section Officer

Ministry of Railway

Group “B”

OA, OL, B, BL, LV & HH

20-30 years

6

Assistant Section Officer

Ministry of External Affairs

Group “B”

 

 

OA, OL, B, BL, OAL, LV & HH

20-30 years

7

Assistant Section Officer

AFHQ

Group “B”

20-30 years

8

Assistant

Other Ministries/

Departments/ Organizations

Group “B”

 

 

 

 

OA, OL, B, BL, OAL, LV & HH

18-30 years

9

Assistant

Other Ministries/ Departments/ Organizations

Group “B”

20-30 years

10

Assistant Section Officer

Other Ministries/ Departments/ Organizations

Group “B”

Not  exceeding

30 years.

11

Inspector of Income Tax

CBDT

Group “C”

OA, OL, BL, OAL, HH

Not  exceeding

30 years

12

Inspector, (Central Excise)

CBIC

Group “B”

OA, OL, OAL, HH

Not  exceeding

30 years

13

Inspector (Preventive

Officer)

14

Inspector (Examiner)

2.3 Pay Level-6 (Rs 35400 to 112400):

15

Assistant Enforcement

Officer

Directorate of 

Enforcement, Department of Revenue

Group “B”

Post not identified suitable for

PwD candidates.

Up to 30 years

16

Sub Inspector

Central Bureau of

Investigation

Group “B”

Post not identified suitable for

PwD candidates.

20-30 years

17

Inspector Posts

Department of  Post

Group “B”

Post not identified suitable for

PwD candidates

18-30 years

18

Inspector

Central Bureau of 

Narcotics

Group “B”

Post not identified suitable for

PwD candidates.

Not  exceeding

30 years

2.4 Pay Level-5 (Rs 29200 to 92300):

S No

Name of Post

Ministry/ Department/ Office/  Cadre

Classification of Posts

Nature of Physical 

Disabilities permissible for the post

Age Limit

25

Auditor

Offices under C&AG

Group “C”

 

OA, OL, BL & HH

18-27 years

26

Auditor

Other Ministry/ Departments

Group “C”

18-27 years

27

Auditor

Offices under CGDA

Group “C”

OA, OL, BL, HH & VH

18-27 years

28

Accountant

Offices under C&AG

Group “C”

OA, OL, OAL, BL, B, LV, HH

18-27 years

29

Accountant/

Junior

Accountant

Other Ministry/ Departments

Group “C”

OA, OL, OAL, BL, HH

18-27 Years

 

2.5 Pay Level-4 (Rs 25500 to 81100):

S No

Name of Post

Ministry/ Department/ Office/ Cadre

Classification of Posts

Nature of Physical 

Disabilities permissible for the post

Age Limit

30

Senior

Secretariat Assistant/ Upper Division Clerks

Central Govt. Offices/ Ministries other than CSCS cadres.

Group “C”

OA, OL, BL, OAL, B,LV, HH

18-27 years

31

Tax Assistant

CBDT

Group “C”

BL, OL, PD, D, PB, B, OA, OAL

18-27 years

32

Tax Assistant

CBIC

Group “C”

OL, OA, BL, OAL, B, LV, HH

18-27 years

33

Sub-Inspector

Central Bureau of Narcotics

Group “C”

Post    not     identified

suitable    for        PwD

candidate

18-27 years

34

Upper Division

Clerks

Dte. Gen Border Road

Organisation (MoD)

 

(Post is only for male Candidates with higher physical and medical standards given at Annexure- XVI)

Group “C”

Post    not     identified

suitable    for        PwD

candidates

18-27 years

 

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION : ( As on 01.08.2017)

Assistant Audit Officer/ Assistant Accounts Officer:
1 Essential Qualifications:
Bachelor‟s Degree from a recognized University or Institute.
2 Desirable Qualifications: Chartered Accountant or Cost & Management Accountant or Company Secretary or Masters in Commerce or Masters in Business Studies or Masters in Business Administration (Finance) or Masters in Business Economics.
3 During the period of probation direct recruits shall have to qualify the “Subordinate Audit/ Accounts Service Examination” in respective branches for confirmation and regular appointment as Assistant Audit Officer/ Assistant Accounts Officer.

Junior Statistical Officer:
1 Bachelor‟s Degree in any subject from a recognized University or Institute with at least 60% Marks in Mathematics at 12th standard level; or Bachelor‟s Degree in any subject with Statistics as one of the subjects at degree level.

Statistical Investigator Grade-II:
1 Bachelor‟s Degree in any subject with Statistics as one of the subjects from a recognized University or Institute. The candidates must have studied Statistics as a subject in all the three years of the graduation course.

All other Posts:
.1 Bachelor‟s Degree from a recognized University or equivalent.
 
 The candidates appearing in the final year of their graduation can also apply, however they must possess Essential qualification on or before 01-01-2020. 
 
 As per Ministry of Human Resource Development Notification dated 10.06.2015 published in the Gazette of India all the degrees/ diplomas/ certificates awarded through Open and Distance Learning mode of education by the Universities established by an Act of Parliament or State Legislature, Institutions Deemed to be Universities under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 and Institutions of National Importance declared under an Act of Parliament stand automatically recognized for the purpose of employment to posts and services under the Central Government provided they have been approved by the Distance Education Bureau, University Grants Commission. 
 
 As per UGC (Open and Distance Learning) Regulations, 2017 published in official Gazette on 23.06.2017, under Part-I (2) (P), the programmes in engineering, medicine, dental, nursing, pharmacy, architecture and physiotherapy etc are not permitted to be offered under Open and Distance Learning mode. 
 
 All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for appearing in the Data Entry Skill Test/ Computer Proficiency Test will be required to produce the relevant Certificates such as Mark sheets for all the three years of Graduation/ Provisional Certificate/ Degree of Graduation in original as proof of having acquired the minimum educational qualification on or before 01-01-2020, failing which the candidature of such candidates will be cancelled by the Commission. The candidates who are able to prove, by documentary evidence, that the result of the qualifying examination was declared on or before the cut-off date and he/ she has been declared passed, will also be considered to meet the educational qualification. It is reiterated that the result of required educational qualification must have been declared by the Institute/ University by the specified date. Mere processing of the result by the University/ Institute by the crucial cut-off date does not fulfill the EQ requirement. 
 
 Order/ letter in respect of equivalent Educational Qualifications will require to be produced by the candidates at the time of Document Verification or as and when  required by the Commission, indicating the Authority (with number and date)  under which it has been so treated, in respect of equivalent clause in Essential  Qualifications, if a candidate is claiming a particular qualification as equivalentqualification as per the requirement of the Notice of examination.

AGE LIMIT:

Requirement of age for various posts is as follows:

S No

Age Limit

Remarks

(i)

For the posts for which age limit is 18-27 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier  than  02-01-1993   and   not later than 01-01-2002.

(ii)

For the posts for which age limit is 20-27 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier  than   02-01-1993   and   not later than 01-01-2000.

(iii)

For the posts for which age limit is 20-30 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier  than  02-01-1990   and   not later than 01-01-2000.

(iv)

For the posts for which age limit is up to 30 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier  than  02-01-1990   and   not later than 01-01-2002.

(v)

For the post for which age limit is up

to 32 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier  than  02-01-1988   and   not later than 01-01-2002.

Permissible relaxation in upper age limit and category-codes for claiming age relaxation are as follows:

Code

No

Category

Age-relaxation  permissible beyond upper age limit

01

SC/ ST

5 years

02

OBC

3 years

03

PwD (Unreserved)

10 years

04

PwD (OBC)

13 years

05

PwD (SC/ ST)

15 years

06

Ex-Servicemen (ESM)

3 years after deduction of the military service rendered from the   actual   age   as   on   the closing date.

07

Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from 1st January 1980 to 31st December 1989

5 years

08

Defence  Personnel  disabled  in  operation  during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof

3 years

09

Defence  Personnel  disabled  in  operation  during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof   (SC/ ST)

8 years

Permissible relaxation in upper age limit for Group „C‟ posts only

10

Central   Govt.   Civilian   Employees   who   have rendered   not   less   than   3   years   regular   and continuous service as on closing date for receipt of application.

Up to 40 years of age

11

Central  Govt.  Civilian  Employees  (SC/ST)  who have rendered not less than 3 years   regular and continuous service as on  closing date  for receipt of application.

Up to 45 years of age

12

Widows/   Divorced   Women/   Women   judicially separated and who are not remarried.

Up to 35 years of age

13

Widows/   Divorced   Women/   Women   judicially separated and who are not remarried (SC/ ST).

Up to 40 years of age

 

Exam Syllabus And Scheme of The Examination :

The written examination will consist of (Tier-I) objective type paper and (Tier-I) descriptive type as shown below :

Tier-I:

General Intelligence & Reasoning: It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/ Number Analogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/ Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/ pattern- folding & un-folding, Figural Pattern- folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/ numbers coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence, Other sub-topics, if any. 20 

General Awareness: Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates‟ general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research. 

Quantitative Aptitude: The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

English Comprehension: Candidates‟ ability to understand correct English, his/ her basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested.

(Tier-II):

Paper-I

(Quantitative Abilities): The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

Paper-II 

(English Language and Comprehension): Questions in this component will be designed to test the candidate‟s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in  21the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/ detecting misspelled words,  idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement of sentences, active/ passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/ indirect narration,  shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, clozepassage & comprehension passage.

Paper-III (Statistics):

Collection, Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data – Primary and Secondary data, Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions; Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions.

Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency – mean median and mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.

Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion – range, quartile deviations, mean deviation and standard deviation; Measures of relative dispersion.

Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis – Different types of moments and their relationship; meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.

Correlation and Regression – Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression lines; Spearman‟s rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression; Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only).

Probability Theory – Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability; Conditional probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes‟ theorem.

Random Variable and Probability Distributions – Random variable; Probability functions; Expectation and Variance of arandom variable; Higher moments of a random variable; Binomial, Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint distribution of two random variable (discrete).

Sampling Theory – Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and non-sampling errors; Probability and nonprobability sampling techniques(simple random sampling, stratified sampling, multistage sampling, multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling, convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement only); Sample size decisions. 

Statistical Inference - Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator, Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests, Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals. 

Analysis of Variance - Analysis of one-way classified data and twoway classified data.

Time Series Analysis - Components of time series, Determinations of trend component by different methods, Measurement of seasonal variation by different methods. 

Index Numbers - Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers, Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers. 

Paper-IV 

(General Studies-Finance and Economics):

Part A:

Finance and Accounts-(80 marks):

Fundamental principles and basic concept of Accounting:

Financial Accounting: Nature and scope, Limitations of Financial Accounting, Basic concepts and Conventions, Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.

Basic concepts of accounting: Single and double entry, Books of original Entry, Bank Reconciliation, Journal, ledgers, Trial Balance, Rectification of Errors, Manufacturing, Trading, Profit & loss Appropriation Accounts, Balance Sheet Distinction between Capital and Revenue Expenditure, Depreciation Accounting, Valuation of Inventories, Non-profit organisations Accounts, Receipts and Payments and Income & Expenditure Accounts, Bills of Exchange, Self Balancing Ledgers.

Part B:

Economics and Governance-(120 marks):

Comptroller & Auditor General of India- Constitutional provisions, Role and responsibility. 

Finance Commission-Role and functions. 

Basic Concept of Economics and introduction to Micro Economics: Definition, scope and nature of Economics, Methods of economic study and Central problems of an economy and Production possibilities curve. 

Theory of Demand and Supply: Meaning and determinants of demand, Law of demand and Elasticity of demand, Price, income and cross elasticity; Theory of consumer‟s behaviourMarshallian approach and Indifference curve approach,  Meaning and determinants of supply, Law of supply and Elasticity of Supply.

Theory of Production and cost: Meaning and Factors of production; Laws of production- Law of variable proportions and Laws of returns to scale. 

Forms of Market and price determination in different markets: Various forms of markets-Perfect Competition,  Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition and Oligopoly ad Price determination in these markets.

Indian Economy:

Nature of the Indian Economy Role of different sectorsRole of Agriculture, Industry and Services-their problems and growth; 

National Income of India-Concepts of national income, Different methods of measuring national income. 

Population-Its size, rate of growth and its implication on economic growth.

Poverty and unemployment- Absolute and relative poverty, types, causes and incidence of unemployment. 

Infrastructure-Energy, Transportation, Communication.

Economic Reforms in India: Economic reforms since 1991; Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation and Disinvestment. 

Money and Banking:

Monetary/ Fiscal policy- Role and functions of Reserve

Bank of India; functions of commercial Banks/RRB/Payment Banks.

Budget and Fiscal deficits and Balance of payments.

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. Role of Information Technology in Governance.

Questions in Paper-I will be of Matriculation Level, Paper-II of 10+2 Level and in Paper-III and Paper-IV of Graduation Level.

Skill Test:

Date Entry Skill Test (DEST):

For the post of Tax Assistants (Central Excise & Income Tax): Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) at 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depressionper hour on Computer.

The “Data Entry Speed Test” Skill Test will be conducted for a passage of about 2000 (two thousand) key depressions for a duration of 15 (fifteen) minutes. This test will be of qualifying nature. Computers for the test will be provided by the Commission at the Centre/ venue notified for the purpose. The Skill Test will be held at the Commission‟s Regional/ Sub-Regional Offices or at other Centres as may be decided by the commission. Detailed instructions regarding Skill Test will be sent by the Regional/ Sub Regional Offices of the Commission to eligible candidates declared qualified for appearing in Skill Test. Information about evaluation of Typing Test/ DEST are available on the Commission‟s website https:\\ssc.nic.in (Candidate‟s Corner).

The Skill test will be conducted in the manner decided by the Commission for the purpose.

OH candidates opting for the post of Tax Assistant in CBDT are exempted for appearing in Skill Test. OH candidates opting for post of Tax Assistant in CBEC are not exempted from Skill Test. HH and VH candidates are not eligible for exemption from the Skill Test.

PwD candidates who are eligible for scribes as para-7.1 and 7.2 of the Notice of Examination will be allowed additional compensatory time of 5 (five) minutes in DEST. Only those VH candidates who opt for scribes in the written examination will be provided passage reader at the time of Skill Test. 

Computer Proficiency Test (CPT):

The Commission will hold Computer Proficiency Test (CPT), comprising of three modules: (i) Word Processing, (ii) Spread Sheet and (iii) Generation of Slides, for the posts of Assistant Section Officer in CSS, MEA & AFHQ, Assistant in Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Assistant (GSI) in the Ministry of Mines, Inspector (Central Excise), Inspector (Preventive Officer) & Inspector (Examiner) in CBIC. The CPT will be conducted in the manner decided by the Commission for the purpose. No exemption from CPT is allowed for any category of  PwD candidates. CPT will be of qualifying nature.

Detailed instructions regarding CPT will be provided by the Regional/ Sub Regional Offices of the Commission to eligible  candidates declared qualified for appearing in the CPT.

Scheme of Tier-I and Tier-II Examinations:

Tier

Subject

Number of 

Questions

Maximum

Marks

Time allowed

I

A.  General Intelligence and Reasoning

25

50

 

60 Minutes

(1 hour and 20 minutes for the candidates who are allowed use of scribe as per Para-7.1 and 7.2)

B.  General Awareness

25

50

C.  Quantitative Aptitude

25

50

D.  English Comprehension

25

50

II

Paper-I: Quantitative Abilities

100

200

120 Minutes

(for each Paper)

(2 hours and 40 minutes for the candidates who are allowed use of scribe as per Para-7.1 and 7.2)

Paper-II:  English  Language  and

Comprehension

200

200

Paper-III: Statistics

100

200

Paper-IV:       General       Studies

(Finance and Economics)

100

200

Scheme of Tier-III Examination:

Tier

Mode of

Examination

Scheme of Examination

Maximum

Marks

Time Allowed

III

Pen and Paper mode

Descriptive Paper in English or Hindi

 

(Writing of Essay/ Precis/ Letter/  Application etc.)

100

60 Minutes

 

(1 hour and 20 minutes for the candidates who are allowed use of scribe as per Para-7.1 and 7.2)

The Paper in Tier-III will have to be written either in Hindi or in English. Part paper written in Hindi and part in English will be awarded zero marks.

In Tier-III, candidates must write their correct Roll Number at the prescribed places on the cover page of the Answer Book. Candidates must also affix signature and Left-hand Thumb Impression in the relevant columns in the Answer Book. Answer Books not bearing Roll Number, Signature and Left-hand Thumb Impression shall be awarded zero marks. 

Candidates are strictly advised not to write any personal identity e.g. name, roll number, mobile number, address, etc inside the Answer Book (TierIII). The candidates who fail to adhere to these instructions will be awarded zero marks even if marks are awarded during the evaluation process.

Tier-IV (Skill Test):

In the Tier-IV, Computer Proficiency Test and Data Entry Skill Test will be conducted. 

Application Fee:

SSC CGL EXAM: 

(Result) SSC CGL (Tier -2) 2018 Exam



(Result) SSC CGL (Tier -2) 2018 Exam



The Staff Selection Commission had conducted Computer Based Examination for Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination – 2018 from 11.09.2019 to 14.09.2019 at various centres across the country.

2. As per the provisions of the Notice of Examination, aggregate marks secured by the candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II have been considered for short-listing the candidates to appear in Tier-III.

3. Paper-I and Paper-II of Tier-II Examination were conducted in multiple shifts, therefore, marks scored by the candidates in Paper-I and Paper-II have been normalized as per the formula published by the Commission on its website on 07.02.2019. Such normalized marks have been used to qualify the candidates for the next stage of Examination (i.e. Tier-III).

4. Based on the aggregate marks scored by the candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II examinations, candidates have been shortlisted, category-wise, to appear in Tier-III Examination. Separate cut-offs have been fixed for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer (List-1), Junior Statistical Officer in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (List-2) and all other posts (List-3).

5. Details of candidates qualifying for appearing in Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2018 (Tier-III) are as follows:

List-1:  Candidates qualified for appearing in Tier-III for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer: 

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

OH

HH

Other PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks [Tier 1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II+IV)]

463.15

460.21

510.92

572.51

409.26

347.35

168.04

 

Candidates Available

841

421

1724

1762*

111

100

50

5009

 

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 92-SC, 17-ST, 774-OBC and 1-OH candidates  qualifying  at  UR  standard  have  been  shown  under  their  respective categories. 

List-2:  Candidates  qualified  for  appearing  in  Tier-III  for  the post  of  Junior Statistical Officer (JSO):

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

OH

HH

VH

Other PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks  [(Tier 1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II+III)]

433.95

403.95

517.76

535.86

348.50

223.46

267.51

165.04

 

Candidates Available

478

301

583

955*

112

106

121

16

2672

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 37-SC, 10-ST, 421-OBC, 3-OH and 4-VH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

List-3: Candidates qualified for appearing in Tier-III for the posts other than Assistant Audit Officer, Assistant Accounts Officer and Junior Statistical Officer:

 

SC

ST

OBC

UR

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PwD

Total

Cut-off Marks [(Tier

1+Tier-II (Paper- I+II)]

354.74

327.05

400.33

433.00

255.12

302.50

165.73

280.98

122.58

 

Candidates Available

8050

4022

15359

17439*

3244

859

777

404

86

50240

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above 1320-SC, 361-ST, 8373-OBC, 44-OH, 4-HH and 22-VH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

Note-I: After excluding common candidates, 50293 candidates are qualifying for appearing in Tier-III Examination.

Note-II: Candidates qualifying in more than one list need to appear in Tier-III Examination only once.

6. The Tier-III (Descriptive Examination) is scheduled to be held on 29.12.2019. The status of city of examination and Admission Certificates of the qualified candidates will be uploaded on the websites of the respective Regional Offices approximately 15 days and 04 days respectively before the conduct of the Tier-III Examination. However, the candidates who are unable to download their Admission Certificates   may   contact   the   concerned   Regional   Offices   immediately.   The responsibility for timely download of the Admission Certificates lies solely with the candidates.

7. Representations received from the candidates about the answer keys have been carefully examined and the answer keys have been modified wherever necessary. The modified answer keys have been used for evaluation.

8. Marks of the qualified/ non-qualified candidates and Final Answer Keys along with the Question Paper(s) in a standard format will be hosted on the website of the Commission shortly.

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