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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift (Civil Engineering)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift

(Civil Engineering)

QID : 701 - The defect that is caused by falling of rain water on the hot surfaces of the bricks is known as______.

Options:
1) Bloating
2) chuffs
3) Cracks
4) lamination
Correct Answer: chuffs
 

QID : 702 - Which of the following property of bitumen is related to the Pensky-Marten test?

Options:
1) Ductility
2) Softening point
3) Flash and fire point
4) Viscosity
Correct Answer: Flash and fire point
 

QID : 703 - The defect in timber that arises due to the swelling caused by growth of layers of sap wood over the wounds after branch is cut off is called as_______.

Options:
1) checks
2) knots
3) shakes
4) rind gall
Correct Answer: rind gall
 

QID : 704 - Which of the following is the measure of ease with which the wood may split?

Options:
1) Cleavability
2) Shearing strength
3) Stiffness
4) Toughness
Correct Answer: Cleavability
 

QID : 705 - 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg
Options:
1) 49.04

2) 65.71

3) 104.03

4) 116.8
Correct Answer: 49.04
 

QID : 706 - Which of the following represents the CORRECT expression for maturity (M) of the concrete sample?

Options:
1)

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg 

2) 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg

3) 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg

4) 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg

Correct Answer: 

QID : 707 - The aggregate which is obtained from the seashore or rivers and produces minimum voids in the concrete is known as_______.

Options:
1) angular aggregates
2) flaky aggregates
3) irregular aggregates
4) rounded aggregates
Correct Answer: rounded aggregates
 

QID : 708 - The detachment of the paint film from the surface is known as _____.

Options:
1) chalking
2) cracking
3) flaking
4) wrinkling
Correct Answer: flaking
 

QID : 709 - Which of the following is the homogeneous solution of resins in the alcohol?

Options:
1) Distemper
2) Enamel  paint
3) Plastic paint
4) Varnish
Correct Answer: Varnish
 

QID : 710 - In the softening point test of the bitumen with the help of ring and ball apparatus, what is the diametre (cm) of the steel ball?

Options:
1) 0.35

2) 0.65

3) 0.95

4) 1.25
Correct Answer: 0.95
 

QID : 711 - Which of the following is the CORRECT statement for length of the short wall, as one move from earthwork to brick work in super structure in long and short wall method?

Options:
1) Its value decreases
2) Its value depends upon the length of the wall.
3) Its value increases.
4) Its value remains same.
Correct Answer: Its value increases.
 

QID : 712 - Which of the following is the unit of measurement for rivets?

Options:
1) Bags
2) Cubic meter
3) Numbers
4) Quintal
Correct Answer: Quintal
 

QID : 713 - Which of the following statement is CORRECT for units of measurement?

Options:
1) Bands of specified width are measured in running meter.
2) Work consists of the linear measurement and is measured in square meter.
3) Single units are measured in meter.
4) Work consists of areal surface and is measured in cubic meter.
Correct Answer: Work consists of areal surface and is measured in cubic meter.
 

QID : 714 - Which of the following area is NOT included in the plinth area of the building?

Options:
1) Area of the lofts.
2) Area of Barsati at terrace level.
3) Area of walls at floor level.
4) Porches of non-cantilever type.
Correct Answer: Area of the lofts.
 

QID : 715 - Which of the following multiplying factor is used for the estimation of lead for Cartze tracks?

Options:
1) 0.8
2) 1
3) 1.1
4) 1.2
Correct Answer: 1.1

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Study Material for Junior Engineer (Civil / Electrical / Mechanical Engineering) Examination

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Awareness)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Awareness)

QID : 51 - Preliminary expenses are the examples of ________.

Options:
1) Capital expenditure
2) Capital gain
3) revenue expenditure
4) deferred revenue expenditure
Correct Answer: Capital expenditure
 
QID : 52 - Which economic activity cannot be included in the tertiary sector?

Options:
1) Working in a call-centre
2) Tuition occupation
3) Bee-keeping
4) Banking
Correct Answer: Bee-keeping

QID : 53 - Which of the following statement is true for the Public Sector Unit?

Options:
1) Most of assets is owned by a group of people
2) Most of assets is owned by big companies
3) Most of assets is owned by government
4) Most of assets is owned by an individual
Correct Answer: Most of assets is owned by government

QID : 54 - The percentage of India's population in the total population of the world as per 2011 census is: _______.

Options:
1) 17.5%
2) 18.01%
3) 19.35%
4) 20.25%
Correct Answer: 17.5%
 
QID : 55 - Which of the following five year plan of India recognized human development as the core of development efforts?

Options:
1) Eighth five year plan
2) Ninth five year plan
3) Tenth five year plan
4) Eleventh five year plan
Correct Answer: Eighth five year plan
 
QID : 56 - Which of the following thinker is associated with "the concept of political sovereignty"?

Options:
1) MacIver
2) Socrates
3) Rousseau
4) Plato
Correct Answer: Rousseau

QID : 57 - Who said, "A good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state"?

Options:
1) Plato
2) Aristotle
3) G. B. Shaw
4) Rousseau
Correct Answer: Aristotle
 
QID : 58 - Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is a/an _________.

Options:
1) Advisory Body
2) Coordinating Authority only
3) Supervisory Authority only
4) Administrative Authority
Correct Answer: Administrative Authority

QID : 59 - According to Indian Constitution, who decides the salary of members of Parliament?

Options:
1) Union Council of Ministers
2) Parliament
3) Supreme Court
4) President of India
Correct Answer: Parliament
 
QID : 60 - Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Options:
1) Eighth Schedule : Languages
2) Second Schedule : Form of Oath of office
3) Fourth Schedule : Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
4) Tenth Schedule : Defection related provisions
Correct Answer: Second Schedule : Form of Oath of office

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Study Material for Junior Engineer (Civil / Electrical / Mechanical Engineering) Examination

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Intelligence & Reasoning)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift

(General Intelligence & Reasoning)

QID : 1 - In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Rain : Clouds : : ? : ?

Options:
1) Rice : Food
2) Grey : Colour
3) Heat : Sun
4) Snow : Mountains
Correct Answer: Heat : Sun
 
QID : 2 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Cactus : Plant : : Rice : ?

Options:
1) Basmati
2) Crop
3) White
4) Rabi
Correct Answer: Crop

QID : 3 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Pink : Colour : : Eagle : ?

Options:
1) Black
2) Symbol
3) Bird
4) Sky
Correct Answer: Bird
 
QID : 4 - In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.

TOM : NIG : : ? : ?

Options:
1) EAT : YUN

2) EAT : XXM

3) FAT : LMV

4) EAT : ZXC
Correct Answer: EAT : YUN
 
QID : 5 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

LERI : PJVN : : MONT : ?

Options:
1) WRTY

2) QTRY

3) RITY

4) RQYB
Correct Answer: QTRY
 
QID : 6 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

SAT : WEX : : MET : ?

Options:
1) AQI

2) IYX

3) FHY

4) QIX
Correct Answer: QIX
 
QID : 7 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

43 : 7 : : 23 : ?

Options:
1) 6

2) 4

3) 7

4) 5
Correct Answer: 5
 
QID : 8 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

38 : 53 : : 53 : ?

Options:
1) 72

2) 68

3) 79

4) 87
Correct Answer: 68

QID : 9 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

9 : 81 : : 11 : ?

Options:
1) 78

2) 93

3) 121

4) 146
Correct Answer: 121
 
QID : 10 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Options:
1) Goggle
2) Purse
3) Accessories
4) Belt
Correct Answer: Accessories

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Study Material for Junior Engineer (Civil / Electrical / Mechanical Engineering) Examination

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (Civil Engineering)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift

(Civil Engineering)

QID : 101 - Which of the following represent the crushing strength (MPa) for the good quality stone that are used in the construction of buildings?

Options:
1) Less than 20
2) 20 to 60
3) 60 to 80
4) Greater than 100
Correct Answer: Greater than 100
 
QID : 102 - Which of the following is examined to determine the age of timber?

Options:
1) Annular ring
2) Sapwood
3) Pith
4) Timber defects
Correct Answer: Annular ring
 
QID : 103 - Which of the following is determined with the help of Le Chatelier’s device?

Options:
1) Abrasion resistance
2) Chemical resistance
3) Soundness
4) Strength
Correct Answer: Soundness

QID : 104 - The type of mortar which is used for the construction works carried out in water-logged area is _____.

Options:
1) cement mortar
2) loose mortar
3) mortar of very low consistency
4) mortar having high w/c ratio
Correct Answer: cement mortar

QID : 105 - For M 25 grade concrete, the split tensile strength in terms of percentage of its compressive strength is _____.

Options:
1) 7 to 11%
2) 18 to 28%
3) 28 to 38%
4) 38 to 48%
Correct Answer: 7 to 11%

QID : 106 - Distempers are generally used to coat _____.

Options:
1) compound wall
2) external concrete surfaces
3) interior surface which are not exposed to environment
4) wood works
Correct Answer: interior surface which are not exposed to environment

QID : 107 - Which of the following is commonly used as retarder in cement?

Options:
1) Calcium sulphate
2) Gypsum
3) Potassium carbide
4) Sodium chloride
Correct Answer: Gypsum
 
QID : 108 - In the process of hydration of OPC, to complete all chemical reaction, the water requirement (expressed as the percentage of cement) is _____.

Options:
1) 5 to 8%
2) 8 to 16%
3) 20 to 25%
4) 35 to 45%
Correct Answer: 20 to 25%

QID : 109 - The slump test is performed to check the _____.

Options:
1) presence of water in cement
2) ratio of concrete ingredients
3) temperature resistance
4) workability of concrete
Correct Answer: workability of concrete

QID : 110 - The reason behind the low expansion and shrinkage of the plywood is _____.

Options:
1) plies are placed at the right angles with each other
2) they are glued under the high pressure
3) they are held in the position with the help of adhesives
4) they are prepared with the help of veneers
Correct Answer: plies are placed at the right angles with each other

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Study Material for Junior Engineer (Civil / Electrical / Mechanical Engineering) Examination

Study Kit for SSC CGL EXAM

General: 

एस.एस.सी. कनिष्ठ अभियन्ता परीक्षा पेपर 2018 "22 जनवरी 2018" दोपहर की पाली (सामान्य जागरूकता) SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift (General Awareness)



एस.एस.सी. कनिष्ठ अभियन्ता परीक्षा पेपर 2018 "22 जनवरी 2018" दोपहर की पाली (सामान्य जागरूकता) SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift (General Awareness)



QID : 651 - आय और व्यय लेखा ________ होता है?
Options:
1) संपत्ति लेखा
2) वैयक्तिक लेखा
3) आय-व्यय लेखा
4) पूँजीगत लेखा
Correct Answer: आय-व्यय लेखा
 

QID : 652 - वस्तु या उत्पाद विभेद किस बाजार में पाया जाता है?
Options:
1) पूर्ण प्रतियोगी बाजार
2) एकाधिकार बाजार
3) अपूर्ण प्रतियोगी बाजार
4) कोई भी विकल्प सही नहीं है
Correct Answer: अपूर्ण प्रतियोगी बाजार
 

QID : 653 - भारत में पहली बार वैज्ञानिक तरीके से राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना करने वाले अर्थशास्त्री _________  हैं।
Options:
1) जगदीश भगवती
2) वी.के.आर.वी. राव
3) कौशिक बसु
4) मनमोहन सिंह
Correct Answer: वी.के.आर.वी. राव
 

QID : 654 - इनमें से कौन केंद्र सरकार की गैर-योजना व्यय का अंग नहीं है?
Options:
1) ब्याज भुगतान
2) राज्यों को अनुदान
3) विद्युतीकरण पर खर्च
4) सब्सिडी
Correct Answer: विद्युतीकरण पर खर्च
 

QID : 655 - 2011 की जनगणना के अनुसार 2001-2011 के दशक में भारत की जनसंख्या वृद्धि दर _______ प्रतिशत थी।
Options:
1) 15.89
2) 17.64
3) 19.21
4) 21.54
Correct Answer: 17.64
 

QID : 656 - संविधान की संकल्पना का उद्भव सर्वप्रथम निम्नलिखित में से किस देश में हुआ?
Options:
1) इटली
2) चीन
3) ब्रिटेन
4) फ्रांस
Correct Answer: ब्रिटेन
 

QID : 657 - भारतीय संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद के तहत संसद को नागरिकता के संबंध में क़ानून बनाने का अधिकार प्रदान किया गया है?
Options:
1) अनुच्छेद 5
2) अनुच्छेद 7
3) अनुच्छेद 9
4) अनुच्छेद 11
Correct Answer: अनुच्छेद 11
 

QID : 658 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक भारतीय संविधान के अंतर्गत आपातकाल की उद्घोषणा का आधार नहीं हो सकता है?
Options:
1) युद्ध
2) सशस्त्र विद्रोह
3) बाह्य आक्रमण
4) आंतरिक अशांति
Correct Answer: आंतरिक अशांति
 

QID : 659 - भारतीय संविधान का 100-वाँ संशोधन _______ प्रदान करता है।
Options:
1) जीविका की सुरक्षा और  फेरीवालों का विनियमन
2) भारत द्वारा क्षेत्रों को प्राप्त करना और बांग्लादेश में कुछ क्षेत्रों का हस्तांतरण करना
3) राज्यपालों के पारिश्रमिक, भत्तों और विशेष अधिकारों
4) आंध्र प्रदेश के पुनर्गठन
Correct Answer: भारत द्वारा क्षेत्रों को प्राप्त करना और बांग्लादेश में कुछ क्षेत्रों का हस्तांतरण करना
 

QID : 660 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक संविधानिक निकाय नहीं है?
Options:
1) भारत का निर्वाचन आयोग
2) वित्त आयोग
3) राजभाषा आयोग
4) राष्ट्रीय महिला आयोग
Correct Answer: राष्ट्रीय महिला आयोग

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Study Material for Junior Engineer

Study Kit for SSC CGL EXAM

General: 

एस.एस.सी. कनिष्ठ अभियन्ता परीक्षा पेपर 2018 "22 जनवरी 2018" दोपहर की पाली (सामान्य अभियांत्रिकी) SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift (General Engineering)



एस.एस.सी. कनिष्ठ अभियन्ता परीक्षा पेपर 2018 "22 जनवरी 2018" दोपहर की पाली (सामान्य अभियांत्रिकी) SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift (General Engineering)



QID : 701 - ईंटों की गर्म सतहों पर बारिश के पानी के गिरने के कारण जो दोष होता है, _____ से जाना जाता है।
Options:
1) फूलना
2) चफ्फस
3) दरारें
4) परतबंदी
Correct Answer: चफ्फस
 

QID : 702 - निम्न में से बिटूमेन का कौन-सा गुण पेंसकी-मार्टेन परीक्षण से सम्बन्धित है?
Options:
1) लचीलापन
2) सॉफ्टनिंग बिंदु
3) फ़्लैश और फिरे बिंदु
4) श्यानता
Correct Answer: फ़्लैश और फिरे बिंदु
 

QID : 703 - लकड़ी में दोष जो कि शाखा काटने के बाद, आघात पर सैप लकड़ी की परतों में सूजन की वजह से पैदा होती है, _______ कहा जाता है।
Options:
1) चेक्स
2) गाँठ
3) शेक
4) रिंद गल
Correct Answer: रिंद गल
 

QID : 704 - निम्न में से कौन सा आसान उपाय है जिसके साथ लकड़ी विभाजित हो सकती है?
Options:
1) क्लीवबिलिटी
2) अपरूपण ताकत ( शेरिंग स्ट्रेंथ)
3) कड़ापन
4) कठोरता
Correct Answer: क्लीवबिलिटी
 

QID : 705 - 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg
Options:
1) 49.04

2) 65.71

3) 104.03

4) 116.8
Correct Answer: 49.04
 

QID : 706 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कंक्रीट नमूने की परिपक्वता (M) के लिए सही अभिव्यक्ति का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है?
Options:
1) 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg 

2) 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg

3) 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg

4) 

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg

Correct Answer: 

 

QID : 707 - समुच्चय जो समुंदर का किनारा या नदियों से प्राप्त होता है और कंक्रीट में न्यूनतम रिक्तियों को पैदा करता है, उसे _______ कहा जाता है।
Options:
1) कोणीय समुच्चय
2) परतदार समुच्चय
3) अनियमित समुच्चय
4) गोलाकार समुच्चय
Correct Answer: गोलाकार समुच्चय
 

QID : 708 - सतह से पेंट के परत का अलगाव, _____ के रूप में जाना जाता है।
Options:
1) सफ़ेदी (चाल्किंग)
2) दरार
3) फ्लेकिंग
4) सिकुड़न
Correct Answer: फ्लेकिंग
 

QID : 709 - निम्न में से किस अल्कोहल में रेजिन का सजातीय विलयन है?
Options:
1) रंग
2) एनामेल पेंट
3) प्लास्टिक पेंट
4) वार्निश
Correct Answer: वार्निश
 

QID : 710 - रिंग और बॉल तंत्र की मदद से कोलतार के नरम बिंदु परीक्षण में, इस्पात के बॉल का व्यास (सेंटीमीटर) क्या है?
Options:
1) 0.35

2) 0.65

3) 0.95

4) 1.25
Correct Answer: 0.95
 

QID : 711 - निम्न में से कौन सी छोटी दीवार की लंबाई के लिए सही कथन है, अगर कोई खुदाई के बाद लंबी और छोटी दीवार विधि में उत्तम संरचना में ईंट काम करने के लिए जाता है?
Options:
1) इसका मान घटता है
2) इसका मान दीवार की लंबाई पर निर्भर करता है
3) इसका मान बढ़ता है
4) उसका मान एक समान रहता है
Correct Answer: इसका मान बढ़ता है
 

QID : 712 - कीलक के लिए माप की इकाई निम्न में से कौन सा है?
Options:
1) थैला
2) घन मीटर
3) संख्या
4) क्विंटल
Correct Answer: क्विंटल
 

QID : 713 - निम्न में से कौन सा कथन माप की इकाइयों के लिए सही है?
Options:
1) विस्तृत चौड़ाई के बैंड रनिंग मीटर में मापा जाता है।
2) कार्य जिसमे रैखिक माप होते हैं उसे वर्ग मीटर में मापा जाता है।
3) एकल इकाइयों को मीटर में मापा जाता है।
4) कार्य जिसमे क्षेत्रीय सतह होते है और इसे घन मीटर में मापा जाता है।
Correct Answer: कार्य जिसमे क्षेत्रीय सतह होते है और इसे घन मीटर में मापा जाता है।
 

QID : 714 - निम्न में से कौन सा क्षेत्र भवन के स्तंभ क्षेत्र में शामिल नहीं है?
Options:
1) मचान का क्षेत्रफल
2) छत के स्तर पर बारिश का क्षेत्रफल
3) जमीन के सतह पर दीवारों का क्षेत्रफल
4) गैर कैंटीलीवर प्रकार के बरामदे
Correct Answer: मचान का क्षेत्रफल
 

QID : 715 - निम्न में से कौन से गुणक कारक का उपयोग कार्टज़ ट्रैक्स के लिए लीड के अनुमान के लिए किया जाता है?
Options:
1) 0.8
2) 1
3) 1.1
4) 1.2
Correct Answer: 1.1

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(Cut off) SSC CHSL (10+2) Cut off - 2018

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(Cut off) SSC CHSL (10+2) Cut off - 2018



List-I - For the posts of DEO (Other than C&AG):

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PWD

Total

Cut-off Marks

181.47

-

-

178.45

-

-

-

-

-

-

-

Candidates Available

96*

14

4

53

8

-

-

-

-

-

175

*Other than the UR candidates mentioned above 14 SC, 04 ST, 28 OBC and 08 EWS candidates are qualifying as per UR standard.

Note: No vacancy available under SC, ST, EWS, ESM, OH, HH, VH and Other PWD category. However, candidates qualifying as per UR standards have been shown under respective categories.

List-II - For the post of DEO in C&AG:

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PWD

Total

Cut-off Marks

165.93

145.52

136.74

161.72

163.75

117.13

129.42

98.86

-

-

 

CandidatesAvailable

445*

371

207

672

276

252

52

51

4

-

2330

* Other than the UR candidates mentioned above 29 SC, 07 ST, 356 OBC, 209 EWS, 02 OH and 03 VH candidates are qualifying as per UR standard.

Note 1: No vacancy available under VH and Other PWD category. However, candidates qualifying as per UR standards have been shown under respective categories.

List-III - For the posts of LDC/JSA and PA/SA:

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

OtherPWD

Total

Cut-off Marks

135.60

110.09

99.09

133.74

127.25

56.11

102.75

58.43

84.87

50.00

 

Candidates Available

8332*

7936

4191

10831

6675

5063

606

614

605

248

45101

* Other than the UR candidates mentioned above 1319 SC, 365 ST, 9621 OBC,4161 EWS, 28 ESM, 58 OH, 04 HH, 45 VH and 01 Other PWD candidates are qualifying as per UR standard.

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एस.एस.सी. कनिष्ठ अभियन्ता परीक्षा पेपर 2018 "22 जनवरी 2018" सुबह की पाली (सामान्य अभियांत्रिकी ) SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Engineering)



एस.एस.सी. कनिष्ठ अभियन्ता परीक्षा पेपर 2018 "22 जनवरी 2018" सुबह की पाली (सामान्य अभियांत्रिकी) SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Engineering)



QID : 101 - निम्नलिखित में से कोन सी संदलन सामर्थ्य इमारतों के निर्माण में उपयोग किये जाने वाले अच्छी गुणवत्ता के पत्थर को दर्शाती है?
Options:
1) 20 से कम
2) 20 से 60
3) 60 से 80
4) 100 से अधिक
Correct Answer:  100 से अधिक
 
QID :
102 - निम्नलिखित में से कोन सी जांच लकड़ी की उम्र निर्धारित करने के लिए की जाती है?
Options:
1) कुंडलाकार रिंग (अन्युलर रिंग)
2) सैपवुड
3) शक्ति
4) लकड़ी की त्रुटियाँ
Correct Answer: कुंडलाकार रिंग (अन्युलर रिंग)
 
QID : 103 - निम्नलिखित में से किसका निर्धारण ली चेटेलियर (Le Chatelier) के उपकरण के प्रयोग से किया जाता है?
Options:
1) घर्षण प्रतिरोध
2) रासायनिक प्रतिरोध
3) द्रढ़ता
4) मजबूती
Correct Answer: द्रढ़ता
 
QID : 104 - जलग्रस्त क्षेत्रो में निर्माण कार्यों के लिए उपयोग की जाने वाली मोर्टार का प्रकार है ____________
Options:
1) सीमेंट मोर्टार
2) लूज मोर्टार
3) बहुत कम स्थिरता का मोर्टार
4) उच्च w/c अनुपात का मोर्टार
Correct Answer: सीमेंट मोर्टार
 
QID : 105 - M 25 ग्रेड कंक्रीट के लिए, इसकी प्रतिशत संपीडन सामर्थ्य के सन्दर्भ में विभाजित तन्यता शक्ति _____ है|
Options:
1) 7 से 11%
2) 18 से 28%
3) 28 से 38%
4) 38 से 48%
Correct Answer: 7 से 11%
 
QID : 106 - आमतोर पर डिस्टेंपर को ________ के लेप के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है|
Options:
1) कंपाउंड वाल
2) बाहरी कंक्रीट सतह
3) आन्तरिक सतह जो पर्यावरण के संपर्क में नहीं होती है
4) लकड़ी के कार्य
Correct Answer: आन्तरिक सतह जो पर्यावरण के संपर्क में नहीं होती है
 
QID : 107 - निम्नलिखित में से कोन सीमेंट में रिटायडर के रूप में इस्तेमाल किया जाता है?
Options:
1) कैल्सियम सल्फेट
2) जिप्सम
3) पोटैशियम कार्बाइड
4) सोडियम क्लोराइड
Correct Answer: जिप्सम
 
QID : 108 - ओपीसी(OPC) की जलयोजन(हाइड्रेशन) प्रक्रिया में, सभी रासायनिक प्रतिक्रियाओं को पूर्ण करने के लिए _____ (सीमेंट के प्रतिशत के रूप में) पानी की आवश्यकता है|
Options:
1) 5 से 8%
2) 8 से 16%
3) 20 से 25%
4) 35 से 45%
Correct Answer: 20 से 25%
 
QID : 109 - अवपात परिक्षण (स्लंप टेस्ट) _______ की जांच के लिए किया जाता है|
Options:
1) सीमेंट में पानी की उपस्थिति
2) कंक्रीट सामग्री के अनुपात
3) ताप प्रतिरोध
4) कंक्रीट की व्यवहार्यता (वर्केविलिटी)
Correct Answer: कंक्रीट की व्यवहार्यता (वर्केविलिटी)
 
QID : 110 - प्लाईवुड के कम विस्तार और सिकुडन का कारण _______ है|
Options:
1) प्लाई एक दुसरे से समकोण पर रखी जाती हैं
2) वे उच्च दबाव के तहत जुड़े हुए होते हैं
3) वे चिपकने वाले पदार्थ की मदद से इस स्थिति में आयोजित हैं
4) वे तहदार लकड़ी से तैयार किये गए हैं
Correct Answer: प्लाई एक दुसरे से समकोण पर रखी जाती हैं

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(Result) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination, 2018

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Result) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination, 2018



Staff Selection Commission conducted the Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) (Tier-I) Examination, 2018 from 01.07.2019 to 11.07.2019 in the Computer Based Mode for Recruitment of Postal Assistants/Sorting Assistants, Data Entry Operators and Lower Divisional Clerks at various centres all over the country. 

2. Based on marks scored in Tier-I Computer Based Examination candidates have been shortlisted, Category-wise to appear for Tier-II (Descriptive Paper). Separate cut-offs have been fixed for the posts of DEO other than C&AG (List-I), DEO in C&AG (List-II) and LDC/JSA and PA/SA (List-III).

3. As the Tier-I Computer Based Examination was conducted in multiple shifts, marks scored by the candidates have been normalized as per the formula published by the Commission on its website on 07.02.2019. Such normalized marks have been used to qualify the candidates for the next stage of Examination (i.e. Tier-II).

4. Category-wise details of candidates who have provisionally qualified for appearing in Tier-II (Descriptive Paper) and the cut-offs applied for each category are as under:

List-I - For the posts of DEO (Other than C&AG):

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PWD

Total

Cut-off Marks

181.47

-

-

178.45

-

-

-

-

-

-

-

Candidates Available

96*

14

4

53

8

-

-

-

-

-

175

*Other than the UR candidates mentioned above 14 SC, 04 ST, 28 OBC and 08 EWS candidates are qualifying as per UR standard.

Note: No vacancy available under SC, ST, EWS, ESM, OH, HH, VH and Other PWD category. However, candidates qualifying as per UR standards have been shown under respective categories.

List-II - For the post of DEO in C&AG:

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PWD

Total

Cut-off Marks

165.93

145.52

136.74

161.72

163.75

117.13

129.42

98.86

-

-

 

CandidatesAvailable

445*

371

207

672

276

252

52

51

4

-

2330

* Other than the UR candidates mentioned above 29 SC, 07 ST, 356 OBC, 209 EWS, 02 OH and 03 VH candidates are qualifying as per UR standard.

Note 1: No vacancy available under VH and Other PWD category. However, candidates qualifying as per UR standards have been shown under respective categories.

List-III - For the posts of LDC/JSA and PA/SA:

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

OtherPWD

Total

Cut-off Marks

135.60

110.09

99.09

133.74

127.25

56.11

102.75

58.43

84.87

50.00

 

Candidates Available

8332*

7936

4191

10831

6675

5063

606

614

605

248

45101

* Other than the UR candidates mentioned above 1319 SC, 365 ST, 9621 OBC,4161 EWS, 28 ESM, 58 OH, 04 HH, 45 VH and 01 Other PWD candidates are qualifying as per UR standard.

5. The categories of the candidates have been indicated along with their Roll Numbers. If any candidate finds a mismatch between his/her Name, Roll Number and Category, he/she must bring it to the notice of the respective Regional Office of the Commission immediately.

6. The date for the Descriptive Paper (Tier-II) of CHSLE 2018 is scheduled for 29.09.2019. The Admission Certificates of the qualified candidates will be uploaded on the websites of the respective Regional Offices approximately 07 days before the conduct of the Tier-II Examination. However, the candidates who are unable to download their Admission Certificate may contact the concerned Regional Offices immediately. The responsibility of ensuring the download of the Admission Certificate is solely on the candidates.

7. Representations received from the candidates with regard to the answer keys have been carefully examined and the answer keys have been modified wherever necessary. The final answer keys have been used for evaluation. Final Answer Keys along with the Question Paper of candidates will be available for the candidates for period of one month from 13.09.2019 to 12.10.2019. 

8. The result is available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in. 

9. Marks of the qualified/non-qualified candidates will be hosted on the Commission’s website on 13.09.2019. Candidates may check their marks from 13.09.2019 to 12.10.2019 by using his/her Registration No. and Registered Password on the website of the Commission. 

List-I: List of candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II for the posts of DEO in Departments other than C&AG

List-II: List of candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II for the post of DEO in C&AG

List-III: List of candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II for the posts of LDC/ JSA, PA/ SA

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(Paper) SSC: Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier II Exam English Paper - 2010

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Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier II Exam
(English Paper - 2010)

1. To pin one’s faith-
(a) To be sure of some body’s favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one’s relatives

2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people . (c) To hurt some body’s feelings· (d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument (c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater-
(a) Mother’s milk
(b) Mother’s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(cl) Institution where one receives education

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody

6. At one’s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one’s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one’s wit’s end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy’s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ‘temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and ‘in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.

Obviously. thus power which the Press in an:)’ country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal

10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power

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(Paper) SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier II English Exam Paper 2010

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SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier II English Exam Paper 2010

1. To pin one’s faith-
(a) To be sure of some body’s favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one’s relatives

2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people
(c) To hurt some body’s feelings
(d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument
(c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater- ‘
(a) Mother’s milk
(b) Mother’s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(d) Institution where one receives education

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody

6. At one’s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one’s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one’s wit’s end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy’s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ‘temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or def ects of society or of Government, and ‘in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.

Obviously. thus power which the Press in an ’ country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So P ress has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal

10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power

11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual (b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons

12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses

13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all

14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government

15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.

16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyedconcern

17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy (d) is not very high

18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a–
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Lim ited Dictatorship

19 - 26 Fill in the blanks:

19. She has Dot recovered fully—the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against

20. The master dispensed—the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for

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