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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014, 2nd Shift "Reasoning"

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SSC CGL (2 shift) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning

1. In a raw, 25 trees are planted at equal distance from each other. The distance between 1st and 25th three is 30m. What is the distance between 3rd and 15th tree?

(a) 8 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 18 m

2. In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the classes is composed of girls?

(a) y(x+y)
(b) x/xy
(c) x/(x+y)
(d) y/xy

3. If a number is greater than 5 but less than 9 and greater than 7 but less than 11, the number is

(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

Direction (Q. Nos. 4 and 5): In the following questions, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

4. Stimulation

(a) Station
(b) Nation
(c) Motion
(d) Mouth

5. Institutionalise

(a) Nutrition
(b) Intuition
(c) Tuition
(d) Insulation

6. If MONKO is coded as 57637, then how KLJMN be coded in the same code?

(a) 32456
(b) 34256
(c) 35156
(d) 32546

7. In a certain code, TRIPLE is written as SOHOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code?

(a) CHRONRD
(b) DSOESPI
(c) ESJTPTF
(d) ESOPSID

8. Which letter is the word ‘Vertix’ should be changed to mean spiral movement?

(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 4th
(d) Last

9. If TRANSFER is coded as RTNAFSRE, the how ELEPHANT be coded in the code language?

(a) LEPEHATN
(b) LEPEAHTN
(c) LEEPAHTN
(d) LEPEAHNT

10. If ‘-’ stands for addition, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication and ‘×’ stands for division, then which one of the following equation is correct?

(a) 50 × 2 ÷ 2 – 30 + 25 = 25
(b) 50 – 30 + 5 ÷ 2 × 30 = 25
(c) 40 + 35 × 2 – 50 + 30 = 95
(d) 30 × 2 – 25 + 50 + 5 = 100

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014, 2nd Shift "General Awareness"

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SSC CGL (2 shift) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014

Subject: General Awareness

1. The process of improving the quality of rubber by heating it with sulphur is called

(a) vulcanization
(b) acceleration
(c) sulphonation
(d) galvanization

2. Which source has been particularly fruitful in finding novel anti-tumour agents such as bryostatins and dolostatins?

(a) Marine sources
(b) Animals
(c) Venoms and toxins
(d) Combinatorial chemistry

3. The pollutant responsible for ozone holes is

(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) CO
(d) CFC

4. One of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is

(a) burning
(b) dumping
(c) burying
(d) recycling

5. Vermicomposting is done by

(a) fungus
(b) bacteria
(c) worms
(d) animals

6. If waste materials contaminate the source of drinking water, which of the following diseases will spread?

(a) Scurvy
(b) Typhoid
(c) Malaria
(d) Anaemia

7. India exports power to

(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Pakistan
(d) Bhutan

8. The alkaloid naturally found in coffee, cocoa and cola nut is

(a) cocaine
(b) morphine
(c) tannin
(d) caffeine

9. The metal used for making aircrafts and rickets is

(a) lead
(b) aluminium
(c) nickel
(d) copper

10. The first woman President of Indian National Congress was

(a) Kamala Devi Chattopadhyaya
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014, "English Comprehension"

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014

Subject: English Comprehension

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-5) In the following questions, some parts of the sentence have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, mark (d) as your answer.

1. With our great annoyance (a)/we found the ground (b)/filled with broken glasses. (c)/No error (d)

2. The new device (a)/aims at eliminating (b)/the risk of short-circuiting. (c)/No error (d)

3. I wish to heartily (a)/congratulate you for (b)/your astounding success. (c)/No error (d)

4. The visitor took the vacant seat (a)/next from mine (b)/one of the many huge sofas in the room. (c)/No error (d

5. He was (a)/a learnt man among lords, (b)/and a lord among learned men. (c)/No error (d)

Directions (Q.Nos. 6-10) In the following questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

6. The book provides an overview of European wines that should prove inviting to both the virtual ........ and the experienced connoisseur.

(a) prodigal
(b) novice
(c) zealot
(d) glutton

7. The Sun is shining brightly, please ........... the light.

(a) put off
(b) put out
(c) take off (d) put on

8. This practice was brought ........... to prevent certain abuses.

(a) about
(b) in
(c) down
(d) off

9. This package was supposed ........... yesterday.

(a) to have been delivered
(b) to deliver
(c) to be delivering
(d) not to be delivered
10. Her true feelings manifested themselves in her sarcastic remarks, only then was her ........ revealed.

(a) sweetness
(b) bitterness
(c) sarcasm
(d) charm

Directions (Q.Nos. 11-13) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

11. Brutalize

(a) Devise
(b) Strike
(c) Stir
(d) III-treat

12. Pinnacle

(a) Summit
(b) Pit
(c) Capusle
(d) Heart

13. Garble

(a) Communicate
(b) Explain
(c) Confuse
(d) Hide

Directions (Q.Nos. 14-16) In the following questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

14. Seamy

(a) Unpleasant
(b) Sincere
(c) Honest
(d) Pure

15. Cease

(a) Confront
(b) Confiscate
(c) Abandon
(d) Initiate

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014, "Quantitative Aptitude"

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

1. Subhash can copy 50 pages in 10 h; Subhash and Prakash can copy 300 pages in 40 h. In how much time can Prakash copy 30 pages?

(a) 12 h
(b) 9 h
(c) 13 h
(d) 10 h

2. Rajesh is in-charge of buying bread rolls and buns for a party. There are 10 buns in each box of buns and 8 bread rolls in each box of bread rolls. Rajesh wants to buy exactly the same number of buns and bread rolls. What is the smallest number of boxes he should buy for buns alone?

(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 5
 

4. If a job is to be completed in 10 days, it requires 270 persons. If 180 persons take up the same job, they will finish it in

(a) 27 days
(b) 12 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 18 days

5. A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 100 days. However, if there were 10 men less, then it would take 10 days more for the work to be finished How many men were there originally?

(a) 110
(b) 75
(c) 50
(d) 100

6. A square lawn has path 4 m wide around it. If the area of the path is 196 m2, then each side of the lawn is

(a) 7.25 m
(b) 9.25 m
(c) 8.25 m
(d) 8 m

7. A cloth merchant has announced 25% rebate on marked price. If one needs to have a rebate of Rs. 40, then how many shirts, each with a marked price of Rs. 32, should he purchase?

(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 6

8. One dozen pairs of socks quoted at Rs. 160 are available at a discount of 10%. Find how many pairs of socks can be bought for Rs. 60.

(a) 6 pairs
(b) 8 pairs
(c) 5 pairs
(d) 7 pairs

9. A machine is marked at Rs. 7500 for sale. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 8%, 5% and 2% on it. The net selling price (in Rs.) is

(a) 6427.50
(b) 6415.40
(c) 6400.30
(d) 6423.90

10. The surface area of two spheres are in the ratio 4 : 9. What is the ratio of their volumes?

(a) 8 : 27
(b) 16 : 81
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 4 : 9

11. On increasing the diameter of a circle by 75%, the percentage increase in the perimeter is

(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 65%
(d) 70%

12. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 42 cm, its area, (in sq cm) will be

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 1/2

(a) –1
(b) 3abc
(c) 1
(d) 0

15. If x + y = 4 and 1/x + 1/y = 4, then the value of x 3 + y 3 is

(a) 52
(b) 64
(c) 4
(d) 25

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014, "General Awareness"

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014

Subject: General Awareness

1. he famous economist Thomas Robert Malthus, in his views regarding population, is

(a) optimistic
(b) partly optimistic and partly pessimistic
(c) pessimistic
(d) None of the above

2. Non-insurable or uncertainty risk is

(a) change in fashion
(b) fire
(c) flood
(d) change in the price of that commodity

3. ‘Gold Bullion Standard’ refers to

(a) gold coin as an unlimited legal tender
(b) gold as the measure of value
(c) free coinage of gold
(d) no restriction on import and export of gold

4. Laws made by the executive are called

(a) Delegated Legislation
(b) Preferred Legislation
(c) Rule of Law
(d) Administrative Law

5. The word ‘Oikonomia’ means

(a) Household Management
(b) Individual Management
(c) Political Management
(d) Fiscal Management

6. The word ‘Economics’ is taken from which language?

(a) French
(b) Greek
(c) German
(d) English

7. Which of the following is a merit of the presidential form of government?

(a) The fixed tenure of the executive gives it a great sense of stability
(b) It ensures speedy execution of policies
(c) It safeguards the liberty of the people
(d) All of the above

8. The two chambers of the Swiss Federal Assembly are called

(a) National Council and Council of States
(b) House of Lords and House of Commons
(c) Senate and House of Representatives
(d) None of the above

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9. Name the Italian traveller who visited the Vijayanagar empire in 1420 AD

(a) Domingos Paes
(b) Edoardo Barbosa
(c) Nicolo de Conti
(d) Abdur Razzag

10. Which one of the following dynasties established an independent rule in Bijapur?

(a) Imad Shahi
(b) Nizam Shahi
(c) Qutb Shahi
(d) Adil Shahi

11. Who regarded the second chamber as needless, useless and worse?

(a) Laski
(b) Maclver
(c) Bentham
(d) Seeley

12. The tenure of the Swiss President is

(a) 3 yr
(b) 2 yr
(c) 4 yr
(d) 1 yr

13. Haemolymph is observed in

(a) Arthropods
(b) Echinoderms
(c) Ascaris
(d) Annelids

14. The virus without capsid but only with nucleic acids is called

(a) Capsomere
(b) Nucleoid
(c) Prion
(d) Virion

15. The immunity caused by the B-lymphocytes is called

(a) Sterile immunity
(b) Acquired Immunity
(c) Cellular Immunity
(d) Humoral Immunity

16. Who among the following enjoyed the patronage of Sultans from Balban to Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq?
(a) Ibn Batutah
(b) Badauni
(c) Zia-ud-din Barani
(d) Amir Khusrow

17. The Sufi movement originally started from

(a) Persia
(b) Delhi
(c) Lahore
(d) Kabul

18. Humayun was driven out of Hindustan in 1540 AD after the battle of

(a) Chausa
(b) Dourah
(c) Surajgarh
(d) Kannauj

19. Poly metallic nodules (also called manganese nodules) are found in concentrations

(a) on continental shelves
(b) in deep ocean beds
(c) on lake beds
(d) in beach sands

20. Spot the odd item in the following

(a) Meander
(b) Delta
(c) Bolson
(d) Ox-bow lake

21. Kandla port is located at

(a) Gulf of Khambat
(b) Kori Creek
(c) Gulf of Kutch
(d) None of these

22. Which of the following forests grows in waterlogged areas?

(a) Mangrove
(b) Evergreen
(c) Deciduous
(d) Coniferous

23. Nag Tiba and Mahabharat ranges are included in

(a) Sub-Himalayas
(b) Trans-Himalayas
(c) Greater Himalayas
(d) Lesser Himalayas

24. Pink mould is the common name for

(a) Aspergillus
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Neurospora
(d) Mucor

25. The sleeping sickness is caused by

(a) Escherichia
(b) Neisseria
(c) Entamoeba
(d) Trypanosoma

26. Combustion is a

(a) physicai and chemical process
(b) biological process
(c) physical process
(d) chemical process

27. Which of the following is not a form of carbon?

(a) Soot
(b) Hematite
(c) Graphite
(d) Charcoal

28. What is Dry Ice?

(a) Solid carbon dioxide
(b) Liquid nitrogen
(c) ice cubes and saw dust
(d) Ice cubes and salt

29. The gas commonly used in advertisement sign-boards and decorative lights is

(a) nitrogen
(b) chlorine
(c) hydrogen
(d) neon

30. Flow of blood in dorsal blood vessel of earthworm is

(a) sideward
(b) downward
(c) backward
(d) forward

SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014, "Reasoning"

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2014

Subject: Reasoning

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) In the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

1. Optimist : Cheerful : : Pessimist :?

(a) Petty
(b) Selfish
(c) Gloomy
(d) Mean

2. YTOJ : XSNI : : WRMH : ?

(a) VQLG
(b) TOJE
(c) RMHC
(d) UPKF

3. EIGK : EACY : : RVTY : ?

(a) RVSQ
(b) RNPL
(c) RWUY
(d) RMPL

4. 720 : 840 : : 60 : ?

(a) 76
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 74

5. 225 : 256 : : 289 : ?

(a) 234
(b) 361
(c) 324
(d) 432

6. Money : Misappropriation : : Writing : ?

(a) Deception
(b) Mistake
(c) Plagiarism
(d) Theft

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11) Select the one which is different from other three alternatives.

7.

(a) Rival
(b) Opponent
(c) Foe
(d) Ally

8.

(a) 27
(b) 35
(c) 18
(d) 9

9.

(a) 9-72
(b) 8-56
(c) 11-115
(d) 10-90

10.

(a) TUVX
(b) OPRS
(c) BCDF
(d) HIJL

11.

(a) Bay
(b) Cape
(c) Peninsula
(d) Island

12. Which one of the given response would be a meaningful order of the following?

1. Seed
2. Plant
3. Germination
4. Embryo
5. Flower
6. Fruit

(a) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6
(b) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5, 6
(c) 6, 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 1, 5, 6, 4, 2, 3

13. Arrange the following words as per order in the English dictionary.
1. Live
2. Litter
3. Little 4. Literacy
5. Living

(a) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
(b) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(c) 4, 3, 5, 2, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5

14. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
ipi_upog_pig_pogi_g

(a) iupgg
(b) upgii
(c) puigp
(d) giupi

15. In the following series, how many KGN occur in such a way that ‘G’ is in the middle and ‘K’ and ‘N’ are adjacent to it on both sides?
A K G L M N D Q K G C S N G K T G K G N D Z P U X G K E

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 2

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(Download) SSC CGL (Tier - 1) 2014 Exam Paper Held on 19-10-2014 - Morning Session "Booklet No: 077QL8"

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Download SSC CGL (Tier - 1) 2014 Exam Paper Held on 19-10-2014 Morning Session

"Booklet No: 077QL8"

Exam Name: SSC CGL (Tier -1)

Year: 2014

Exam Date: 19-10-2014

Session: Morning

Booklet No: 077QL8

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SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013, 2nd Shift "English Language"

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SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013

Subject: English Language

Direction: In question nos. 1 and 2, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet.

1.

(a) humorous
(b) humourous
(c) humorus
(d) humourus

2.

(a) narcisism
(b) narcissism
(c) narcisim
(d) narsisism

Directions: In question nos. 3 to 12, you have two brief passages with 5 questions in each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet.

Passage 1: (Question Nos. 3 – 7)
Pidgins are languages they are not, acquired as mother tongues and that are used for a restricted set of communicative functions. They are formed from a mixture of languages and have a limited vocabulary and a simplified grammar. Pidgins serve as a means of communication between speakers of mutually unintelligible languages and may become essential, in multilingual areas? A Creole develop from a pidgin when the pidgin becomes the mother tongue of the community. To cope with the consequent expansion of communicative functions the vocabulary is increased and the grammar becomes more compilex. Where a creole and standard variety of English coexist, as in the Caribbean, there is a continuum from the most extreme form of creole to the form that is closest to the standard language. Linguists mark off the relative position on the creole continuum as the ‘basilect’ (the furthest from the standard language), the ‘mesolect’, and the ‘acrolet’. In such situations, most creole speakers can vary their speech along the continuum and many are also competent in the standard English of their country.

3. A pidgin develops in a situation when

(a) Different and mutually unintelligible languages exist side by side
(b) A creole becomes the mother tongue of a linguistic community
(c) A language with restricted vocabulary undergoes an expansion in grammar and vocabulary
(d) Two similar languages are mixed to create a new language

4. According to the given passage a pidgin becomes a creole when

(a) It ceases to be a means of communication
(b) It becomes the mother tongue for a new generation of speakers
(c) Its vocabulary undergoes some kind of change
(d) Two or more languages are mixed with an existing pidgin

5. According to the passage a creole continuum is

(a) A linguistic term for the mixture of more than two languages
(b) A scale which measures the linguistic competence of the speaker
(c) A scale in which the proximity of the creole to the standard language is measured
(d) A record of the continuous history of a creole

6. According to the passage ‘basilect’ means

(a) An impure from of a creole
(b) A form of creole which is furthest from the standard language
(c) A form of creole which has an extended vocabulary
(d) A form of creole which is very close to the standard language

7. Find out a word in the passage which is opposite in meaning to the word – ‘Simplified’

(a) Complex
(b) Expansion
(c) Restricted
(d) Consequent

Passage II: (Question Nos. 8 – 12)
There were four of us – George, and William Samual Harris, and myself, and Montomorency. We were sitting in my room, smoking and talking about how bad we were – bad from a medical point of view I mean, of course.
We were all feeling seedy, and we were getting quite nervous about it. Harris said he felt such extraordinary fits of giddiness come over him at times, that he hardly knew what he was doing; and then George said that he had fits of giddiness too, and hardly knew what he was doing. With me, it was my liver that was out of order. I knew it was my liver that was out of order, because I had just been reading a patent liver-pill circular, in which were detailed the various symptoms by which a man could tell when his liver was out of order. I had them all.
It is a most extraordinary thing, but I never read a patent medicine advertisement without being impelled to the conclusion that I am suffering from the particular disease therein dealt with in its most virulent form. The diagnosis seems in every case to correspond exactly with all the sensations that I have ever felt.

8. The four felt down and out because

(a) the room was too smoky
(b) they could never read a patent medicine advertisement
(c) they thought they were ill
(d) they had experienced a most extraordinary thing

9. Whenever the speaker read a liver pill circular

(a) he suffered from an extraordinary surge of giddiness
(b) he felt sure that he had a liver disorder
(c) he felt the urge to smoke
(d) All of the above

10. The author of the above passage seems to be suffering from

(a) fits of morbid depression without real cause
(b) an abnormal anxiety about his health
(c) melancholia
(d) an unnecessarily dark, gloomy and pessimistic attitude to life

11. Harris was troubled by

(a) a symptom of vertigo
(b) garrulity
(c) tribulation
(d) frailty

12. The word which is closet in meaning to virulent is

(a) fantastic
(b) vital
(c) viral
(d) hostile

Directions: In question nos. 13 to 17, some parts of the sentence have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval [] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

13. I whistled thrice (a) will full might and raise my arms (b) towards the sky (c). No error. (d)

14. Science and religion (a) are both necessary for man and for their (b) outer and inner self respectively. (c) No error (d)

15. At certain season (a) some areas on Mars (b) is subject to strong winds. (c) No error (d)

16. As an artist (a) Raju is as good (b) if not better than Ramesh. (c) No error (d)

17. The scientists (a) could not hardly (b) complete all the experiments. (c) No error (d)

Directions: In question nos. 18 to 22, sentence are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet.

18. Google is one of the most popular search engines, it is ________ by the interest users.

(a) utilized
(b) effected
(c) examined
(d) flabbergasted

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19. Raj was tired of Puja’s ________ approach, so he asked her to make her final decision by that evening.

(a) silly-willy
(b) dilly-dally
(c) wasting
(d) tilly-nally

20. Ria is ________ at speaking languages. It is difficult to ______ only one puppy for animal shelter.

(a) adept, adapt
(b) adapt, adapt
(c) adept, adopt
(d) adapt, adopt

21. School days are considered to be the best years of your life. When my ______ year in school began. I began to think of those past enjoyable days and of my future also.

(a) penultimate
(b) absolute
(c) integral
(d) termination

22. Begin ______, the judge gave a favourable verdict.

(a) sagacious
(b) pugnacious
(c) malicious
(d) tenacious

Directions: In question nos. 23 to 25, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

23. Garrulous

(a) talkative
(b) sedative
(c) vocative
(d) positive

24. Tinsel

(a) tinkle
(b) decoration
(c) tin
(d) colourful

25. Labyrinth

(a) meandering
(b) rotating
(c) pacing
(d) wriggling

Directions: In question nos. 26 to 28, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

26. Cordial

(a) fast
(b) heartfelt
(c) friendly
(d) hostile

27. Instinctive

(a) innate
(b) rational
(c) inherent
(d) inborn

28. Venial

(a) minor
(b) pardonable
(c) unpardonable
(d) clean

Directions: In question nos. 29 to 33, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark in the Answer Sheet.

29. Hard work pays in the long run.

(a) always
(b) over a period of time
(c) indefinitely
(d) never

30. I felt a fish out of water among the lawyers.

(a) special
(b) happy
(c) uncomfortable
(d) proud

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SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013, 2nd Shift "Quantitative Aptitude"

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SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

1. ABCD is a cyclic trapezium with AB || DC and AB diameter of the circle. If = 30° then is

(a) 60°
(b) 120°
(c) 150°
(d) 30°

2. ABC is a triangle. The bisectors of the internal angle and external angle intersect at D. If = 50°, then is

(a) 100°
(b) 90°
(c) 120°
(d) 60°

3. AB is the chord of a circle with centre O and DOC is a line segment originating from a point D on the circle and intersecting AB produced at C such that BC = OD. If = 20°, then = ?

(a) 20°
(b) 30°
(c) 40°
(d) 60°

4. In a circle of radius 17 cm, two parallel chords of length 30 cm and 16 cm are drawn. If both the chords are on the same side of the centre, then the distance between the chord is

(a) 9 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 23 cm
(d) 11 cm

(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 8

7. If (x + 7954 × 7956) be a square number, then the value of ‘x’ is

(a) 1
(b) 16
(c) 9
(d) 4

8. A can do a piece of work in 12 days while B alone can do it in 15 days. With the help of C they can finish it in 5 days. If they are paid Rs. 960 for the whole work how much money A gets?

(a) 480
(b) 240
(c) 320
(d) 400

109. Ronal and Elan are working on an Assignement. Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?

(a) 7 hrs. 30 min.
(b) 8 hrs
(c) 8 hrs. 15 min.
(d) 8 hrs. 25 min.

10. One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 96 hours, 2 men and 8 boys can do it in 80 hours, 2 men and 3 women can do it in 120 hours. 5 men and 12 boys can do it in

11. ABC is a right angled triangle, B being the right angle. Mid-points of BC and AC are respectively B’ and A’. The ratio of the area of the quadrilateral AA’ B’B to the area of the triangle ABC is

(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) None of the above

12. A square ABCD is inscribed in a circle of unit radius. Semicircles are described on each side as a diameter. The area of the region bounded by the four semicircles and the circle is

(a) 1 sq. unit
(b) 2 sq. unit
(c) 1.5 sq. unit
(d) 2.5 sq. unit

13. If the perimeters of a rectangle and a square are equal and the ratio of two adjacent sides of the rectangle is 1 : 2 then the ratio of the area of the rectangle and that of the square is

(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 8 : 9

14. The interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 22 and the discount on the same sum for the same time at the same rate is Rs. 20, find the sum.

(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs 200
(c) Rs. 210
(d) Rs. 212

15. A retailer purchased radiosets at the rate of Rs. 400 each from a wholesaler. He raised the price by 30% and then allowed a discount of 8% on each set. His profit will be

(a) 19%
(b) 78.4%
(c) 22%
(d) 19.6%

16. A reduction in the price of apples enables a person to purchase 3 apples for Rs. 1 instead of Rs. 1.25. What is the % of reduction in price (approximately)?

(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 100/3

17. Rs. 700 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that the ratio of the amounts of A and B is 2 : 3 and that of B and C is 4 : 5. Find the amounts in Rs. each received, in the order A, B, C.

(a) 150, 250, 300
(b) 160, 240, 300
(c) 150, 250, 290
(d) 150, 240, 310

18. The ratio of monthly income of A, B is 6 : 5 and their monthly expenditures are in the ratio 4 : 3. If each of them saves Rs. 400 per month, find the sum of their monthly incomes.

(a) 2300
(b) 2400
(c) 2200
(d) 2500

19. A and B have together three times what B and C have, while A, B, C together have thirty rupees more than that of A. If B has 5 times that of C, then A has

(a) Rs. 60
(b) Rs. 65
(c) Rs. 75
(d) Rs. 45

20. A cricket player after playing 10 tests scored 100 runs in the 11th test. As a result, the average of his runs is increased by 5. The present average of runs is

(a) 45
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 55

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21. A fruit seller buys some oranges at the rate of 4 for Rs. 10 and an equal number more at 5 for Rs. 10. He sells the whole lot at 9 for Rs. 20. What is his loss or gain per cent?

22. 15 litres of a mixture contains alcohol water in the ratio 1 : 4. If 3 litres of water is mixed in it, the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture will be

(a) 15
(b)
(c) 17
(d)

23. A man rides at the rate of 18 km/hr, but stop for 6 mins. To change horses at the end of every 7th km. The time that he will take to cover a distance of 90 km is

(a) 6 hrs.
(b) 6 hrs. 12 min.
(c) 6 hrs. 18 min.
(d) 6 hrs. 24 min.

24. A man rows down a river 15 km in 3 hrs. with the stream and returns in 15/2 hrs. The rate at which he rows in still water is

(a) 2.5 km/hr
(b) 1.5 km/hr
(c) 3.5 km/hr
(d) 4.5 km/hr

25. There is 100% increase to an amount in 8 years, at simple interest. Find the compound interest of Rs. 8000 after 2 years at the same rate of interest.

(a) Rs. 2500
(b) Rs. 2000
(c) Rs. 2250
(d) Rs. 2125

26. If the number p is 5 more than q and the sum of the squares of p and q is 55, then the product of p and q is

(a) 10
(b) -10
(c) 15
(d) -15

(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) -2
(d) 4

(a) a 2 + b 2 + c 2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2

(a) 3
(b) -3
(c) 1
(d) -1

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) -1

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SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013, 2nd Shift "General Awareness"

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SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013

Subject: General Awareness

1. Solids which conduct electricity at higher temperature but not at lower temperature are called

(a) super-conductor
(b) metallic-conductor
(c) semi-conductor
(d) insulator

2. Which one of the following has greatest mass?

(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) hydrogen nucleus

3. A television channel characterised by

(a) frequency of transmitted signal
(b) velocity of transmitted signal
(c) physical dimension of television screen
(d) size of picture tube

4. The first computer mouse was built by

(a) Douglas Engelbart
(b) Willliam English
(c) Oaniel Coogher
(d) Rober Zawacki

5. An organisation’s profitability depends on

(a) Quality of data processed
(b) Quantity of data processed
(c) Speed of processing the data
(d) Both (A) and (C)

6. The density of water 1 g/cc. This is strictly valid at

(a) 0°C
(b) 4°C
(c) 25°C
(d) 100°C

7. The process of photosynthesis involves conversion of

(a) chemical energy into radiant energy
(b) chemical energy into mechanical energy
(c) solar energy into chemical energy
(d) mechanical energy into solar energy

8. A colloidal system in which a liquid is dispersed in a liquid is called

(a) gel
(b) emulsion
(c) sol
(d) precipitate

9. The antiseptic compound present in dettol is

(a) Iodine
(b) Enloroxylenol
(c) Biothional
(d) Cresol

10. As per the TRIPS Agreement-1994, a good originating from a region with specific character/quality/reputation is covered/to be protected under the IPR as

(a) Patent
(b) Trademark
(c) Trade secret
(d) GI (Geographical Indicator)

11. Which of the following crop cultivation is banned by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India?

(a) Lathyrus (Khesari)
(b) Genetically modified brinjal
(c) Bt cotton for export
(d) Bt cotton for local use

12. Ice glacier’s melting is a common phenomenon linked to the rise in seawater level. The glaciers are predominantly percent in

(a) Greenland
(b) Antarctica
(c) Himalayas
(d) Arctic

13. Who is known for establishing the “Anand Van”?

(a) Jubilant Budha
(b) H.N.Bahuguna
(c) Baba Amte
(d) Motilal Nehru

14. The civilian Airport of highest altitude is in

(a) Tibet
(b) Nepal
(c) India
(d) China

15. Genomic (DNA) studies in camel have been completed recently by the scientists of

(a) South Africa
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Pakistan

16. International Simon Bolivar Prize was recently awarded to Augn San Suu Kkyi by the government of

(a) Mauritius
(b) China
(c) Venezuela
(d) Cuba

17. BCCI conferred “Col. C. K. Naydu Lifetime Achievement Award” during 2012 to

(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) M.S. Dhoni
(c) VVS Laxman
(d) Sunil Gavaskar

18. Air quality depicting PM 2.5 is more hazardous to

(a) Archaeological Monuments
(b) National Parks
(c) Botanical Gardens
(d) Old Men and Women

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19. Which of the following is not a fundamental right as per the Indian Constitution?

(a) Right to Education
(b) Right to Information
(c) Right to Speech
(d) Right to Life

20. Who is custodian of the Indian Constitution?

(a) President of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

21. Piped Natural Gas (PNG) is used for

(a) Mining
(b) Welding
(c) Anaesthesia
(d) Cooking

22. Greenpark Stadium is in

(a) Bangalore
(b) Dehradun
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Kanpur

23. Rowlatt Act 1919 was enacted during the period of

(a) Lord Chelmsford
(b) Lord William
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Bentinck

24. Panchayati Raj System was implemented first in the pair of states

(a) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
(b) Assam and Bihar
(c) Arunachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab and Chandigarh

25. Human Environment Conference- 1972 was held at

(a) Stockholm
(b) Paris
(c) Geneva
(d) Australia

26. ‘Gold’ is mainly related to

(a) Local market
(b) National market
(c) International market
(d) Regional market

27. Bilateral monopoly refers to the market situation of

(a) two sellers two buyers
(b) own seller and two buyers
(c) two sellers and one buyer
(d) one seller and one buyer

28. The economist who believed that unemployment is impossible and that market mechanism has a built in regulatory system to meet any ups and downs

(a) J.M. Keynes
(b) Ohlin
(c) J.B. Say
(d) Galbraith

29. Constituent Assembly of India was formulated on the recommendation of

(a) Wavel Plan
(b) Cripps Mission
(c) August Offer
(d) Cabinet Mission

30. Which of the following is an essential element of the state?

(a) Sovereignty
(b) Government
(c) Territory
(d) All of these

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SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013, 2nd Shift "Reasoning"

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SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013

Subject: Reasoning

Directions: In question nos. 1 and 2 which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?

1. 10 + 10 ÷ 10 - 10 × 10 = 10

(a) + and –
(b) + and ÷
(c) + and ×
(d) ÷ and +

2. (8 – 8) + 8 × 32 = 64

(a) ×, +, -
(b) -, ÷, +
(c) +, ÷ , +
(d) +, ÷, ×

3. If ‘R’ stands for ‘–’, ‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stand for ‘÷’ and ‘C’ stand for ‘×’, then what is the value of the given equation? (BODMAS rule not be applicable)

25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1 = ?

(a) 32
(b) 35
(c) 30
(d) 27

Directions: In equation nos. 4 to 9, select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.

4. Chisel : Sculptor : : Harrow : ?

(a) Gardener
(b) Mason
(c) Blacksmith
(d) Guard

5. Moon : Satellite : : Earth : ?

(a) Sun
(b) Planet
(c) Solar system
(d) Round

6. BJCI : JBIC : : CXDW : ?

(a) JCDU
(b) BCJU
(c) EVFU
(d) XCWD

7. AB : NO : : LM : ?

(a) OL
(b) KP
(c) PK
(d) YZ

8. AG : IO : : EK : ?

(a) LR
(b) MS
(c) PV
(d) SY

9. 25 : 175 : : 32 : ?

(a) 150
(b) 170
(c) 162
(d) 160

Directions: In question nos. 10 to 15, select the one which is different from the other three responses.

10.

(a) Shimla
(b) Darjeeling
(c) Ooty
(d) Agra

11.

(a) Foal
(b) Hen
(c) Lamb
(d) Leveret

12.

(a) BADC
(b) XWZY
(c) VUST
(d) NMPO

13.

(a) DCFG
(b) FEHI
(c) JILM
(d) HGJL

14.

(a) (1, 0)
(b) (2, 3)
(c) (3, 8)
(d) (4) (4, 27)

15.

(a) (96, 24)
(b) (39, 18)
(c) (81, 54)
(d) (82, 64)

16. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order?

(1) Accomodation
(2) Perception
(3) Scheme formation
(4) Assimilation
(5) Sensation

(a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
(b) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

17. Which of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following starting from the inner layer?

(1) Hydrosphere
(2) Atmosphere
(3) Biosphere
(4) Lithosphere

(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Directions: In question nos. 18 to 21, a series is given, with one term missing. Chose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

18. EJO, FKP, GLQ, HMR, ?

(a) ABC
(b) DEF
(c) MNO
(d) INS

19. B O C N D M E ? ?

(a) L F
(b) O P
(c) K L
(d) E F

20. 7, 2 = 59; 5, 3 = 28; 9, 1 = 810; 2, 1 = 13; 5, 4 =?

(a) 19
(b) 9
(c) 20
(d) 239

21. 120, 440, 960, 1680, ?

(a) 2600
(b) 3240
(c) 3040
(d) 2400

Directions: In question nos. 22 to 24, select the missing number from the given responses.

22.

 81 64 16
4 9 49
36 16 25
108 96 ?

(a) 230
(b) 140
(c) 120
(d) 410

23.

25 5 5
30 5 6
35 ? 5

(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7

24.

24 51 67
2 4 6
5 7 5
53 211 ?

(a) 135
(b) 235
(c) 347
(d) 407

25. G is fatter than H but not as fat as M. Q is also not as fat as M. Who is the most lean person in the group?

(a) Q
(b) H
(c) G
(d) M

26. A man walks 15 metres south. Then turning to his right he walks 15 metres. Then turning to his left, he walks 10 metres. Again turns to his left and walks 15 metres. How far is the from his initial position?

(a) 10 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 60 m

27. There are five buses M, N, O, P, Q in the row on a road. Bus M is standing at the front and Q is standing at the back end. Bus N stands between M and O. Bus P stands between O and Q. Which bus is in the middle of the live?

(a) M
(b) P
(c) N
(d) Q

Directions: In question nos. 28 to 30, from the given alternative words, select the words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

28. DISTANCE

(a) DANCE
(b) STAND
(c) SANE
(d) TEASE

29. RESURRECTIONIST

(a) TOURIST
(b) NOISE
(c) SORCERER
(d) TENDER

30. COMMERCIALISM

(a) CROME
(b) LANCER
(c) MISER
(d) OSCAR

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013 "General English"

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013

Subject: General English

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In these questions some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (d).

1. We have been knowing (a)/ each other (b)/ since we were children. (c)/ No error (d)

2. Neither of the teams (a)/ are sensible enough (b)/ to do this task. (c)/ No error (d)

3. If I was he (a)/ I wouldn’t accept (b)/ this project. (c)/ No error (d)

4. The teacher advised to (a)/ the student to borrow (b)/ a book from the library within three days. (c)/ No error (d)

5. I insisted (a)/ on his going (b)/ there immediately. (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) In these questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

6. The Information and Communication Technology has _____ age and employes very highly paid technocrats.

(a) come of
(b) come upon
(c) come out of
(d) come through

7. They reached the railway station before the train __________ .

(a) had left
(b) had been left
(c) left
(d) was leaving

8. He slipped _______ his old ways and started drinking again.

(a) into
(b) off
(c) by
(d) in

9. All is not well _______ the automobile sector.

(a) of
(b) down
(c) in
(d) to

10. Many premier educational institutions come forward to have a _______ with flourshing industries.

(a) tie-down
(b) tie-up
(c) tie-in
(d) tie-on

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-13) In these questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

11. Stern

(a) Lenient
(b) Young
(c) Stem
(d) Strict

12. Citadel

(a) Metropolis
(b) Mansion
(c) Fortress
(d) Palace

13. Aberration

(a) Justification
(b) Intensification
(c) Deviation
(d) Rationality

Directions (Q. Nos. 14-16) In these questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it.

14. Dormant

(a) Active
(b) Inactive
(c) Dorsal
(d) Domestic

15. Tranquility

(a) Disturbance
(b) Quiet
(c) Serenity
(d) Peace

16. Dwindle

(a) Decrease
(b) Diminish
(c) Shrink
(d) Increase

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) In these questions four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

17. Acquiring a job a cakewalk for a student who has good academic performance coupled with the good attitude.

(a) walk away with a cake
(b) a difficult achievement
(c) a walkway made with cakes
(d) an easy achievement

18. Let sleeping dogs lie.

(a) Do not bring up an old controversial issue
(b) Dogs can raise tempers
(c) Do not allow dogs to stand
(d) Prevent dog mobility

19. To get admission in present day educational institutions, all children should be be born with a silver spoon in the mouth.

(a) be born to silver spoon manufacturer
(b) always hold a silver spoon
(c) be born with silver spoon
(d) be born in a rich family

20. A man of straw means

(a) a worthy fellow
(b) an unreasonable person
(c) a man of no substance
(d) a very active person

21. Children complain about their parents’ gifts. They should learn not to look gift horse in the mouth.

(a) not to look at a horse’s mouth
(b) not to find fault with the gifts received
(c) not to ask for more gift
(d) not to find goodness in the gifts

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-31) In these questions a sentence/ part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/ part of the sentence at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

22. If I had the money I would have bought the house.

(a) If I had had the money I would have bought the house
(b) If I have the money I would have bought the house
(c) If I have had the money I would have bought the house
(d) No improvement

23. I wish I knew what is wrong with my car.

(a) I wish I had known what is wrong with my car
(b) I wish I know what is wrong with my car
(c) I wish I knew what was wrong with my car
(d) No improvement

24. Just before he died, Amar, who is a poet, wrote this poem.

(a) Just before he died, Amar, who was a poet, wrote this poem
(b) Amar, who is a poet, wrote this poem just before he died
(c) Amar wrote this poem, who is poet, just before he died
(d) No improvement

25. The flag will be risen on the 15th of August.

(a) The flag will be roused on the 15th of August
(b) The flag will be rising on the 15th August
(c) The flag will be raised on the 15th of August
(d) No improvement

26. Sushma has wisdom, charm and she has a good sense of humour.

(a) Sushma had a good sense of humour
(b) a good sense of humour
(c) has a good sense of humour
(d) No improvement

27. They knocked down ten houses when they built the new road.

(a) ruptured
(b) removed
(c) pulled down
(d) No improvement

28. Don’t sit in the grass. It’s wet.

(a) by the side of
(b) on
(c) beside
(d) No improvement

29. The game is more important than the winning of the prize.

(a) The gaming is more important than the winning of the prize
(b) The game is more important than winning of the prize
(c) Gaming is more important than winning of the prize
(d) No imporovement

30. The actor is out of jail, and not exactly a free man, since he will be under house arrest for an additional 90 days.

(a) but not exactly a free man
(b) though exactly a free man
(c) if not exactly a free man
(d) No improvement

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013 "Quantitative Aptitude"

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

1. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 12 days, B and C can do it in 20 days and C and A can do it in 15 days. A, B and C together can complete it in

(a) 6 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 12 days

2. A and B together can complete a work in 3 days. They start together but, after 2 days, B left the work. If the work is completed after 2 more days, B alone could do the work in

(a) 4 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 8 days
(d) 10 days

3. A does 20% less work than B. If A can complete a piece of work in 15/2 h, then B can do it in

(a) 4 h
(b) 6 h
(c) 8 h
(d) 10 h

4. A rational number between 3/4 and 3/8 is

(a) 7/3
(b) 16/9
(c) 9/16
(d) 1/7

5. Product of two coprime numbers is 117. Then their LCM is

(a) 9
(b) 13
(c) 39
(d) 117

6. The diameters of two circles are the side of a square and the diagonal of the square. The ratio of the areas of the smaller circle and the larger circle is

7. The total surface area of a sphere is 8p square unit. The volume of the sphere is

8. A conical flask is full of water. The flask has base radius r and height h. This water is poured into a cylindrical flask of base radius mr. The height of water in the cylindrical flask is

9. A dozen pairs of socks quoted at Rs. 180 are available at discount of 20%. How many pairs of socks can be bought for Rs. 48?

(a) 4 pairs
(b) 2 pairs
(c) 5 pairs
(d) 3 pairs

10. The marked price of a table is Rs. 12000. If it was sold for Rs. 10500 after allowing a certain discount, then the rate of discount is

(a) 10%
(b) 12.5%
(c) 15%
(d) 17.5%\

11. The marked price of a radio set is Rs. 480. The shopkeeper allows discount of 10% and gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, his gain percent would be

(a) 18%
(b) 18.5%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

12. The prices of a school bag and a shoe are in the ratio 7 : 5. The price of school bag is Rs. 200 more than the price of a shoe. Then, the price of a shoe is

(a) Rs. 700
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 1200
(d) Rs. 200

13. A sum of Rs. 300 is divided among P, Q and R in such a way that Q gets Rs. 30 more than P and R gets Rs. 60 more than Q. The ratio of their shares is

(a) 2 : 3 : 5
(b) 3 : 2 : 5
(c) 2 : 5 : 3
(d) 5 : 3 : 2

14. The average of nine numbers is 50. The average of the first five numbers is 54 and that of the last three numbers is 52. Then, the sixth number is

(a) 34
(b) 24
(c) 44
(d) 30

15. The average of the first nine integral multiples of 3 is

(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 21

16. An article is sold for Rs. 300 at a profit of 20%. Had it been sold for Rs. 235, the loss percentage would have been

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 16

17. A box has 100 blue balls, 50 red balls and 50 black balls. 25% of blue balls and 50% of red balls are taken away. Then, percentage of black balls at present is

(a) 25%
(b) 100/3%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%

18. Two cars are moving with speeds v1 and v2 towards a crossing along two roads. If their distance from the crossing be 40 m and 50 m at an instant of time, then they do not collide, if their speeds are such that

19. A certain distance is covered at a certain speed. If half of this distance is covered in double the time, the ratio of the two speeds is

(a) 4 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 2

120. The simple interest on Rs. 4000 in 3 yr at the rate of x% per annum equals to the simple interest on Rs. 5000 at the rate of 12% per annum in 2 yr. The value of x is

(a) 6%
(b) 8%
(c) 9%
(d) 10%

21. If x2 – 3x + 1 = 0, then value of

x2 + x + 1/x+1/x2 is

(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 9

(a) 9.898
(b) 10.312
(c) 8.484
(d) 4.242

24. If a 2 + b 2 + 4c 2 = 2(a + b – 2c) – 3 and a, b, c are real, then the value of (a 2 + b 2 + c 2) is

(a) 13/4
(b) 2
(c) 9/4
(d) 3

25. A number x when divided by 289 leaves 18 as the remainder. The same number when divided by 17 leaves y as a remainder. The value of y is

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5

(a) (2, 4)
(b) (0, 0)
(c) (3, 2)
(d) None of these

27. The numerator of a fraction is 4 less than its denominator. If the numerator is decreased by 2 and the denominator is increased by 1, then the denominator becomes eight times the numerator. Find the fraction.

 

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) – 1

(a) 60°
(b) 45°
(c) 55°
(d) 35°

(a) 8 cm 2
(b) 16 cm 2
(c) 24 cm 2
(d) 32 cm 2

General: 

SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013 "General Awareness"

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013

Subject: General Awareness

1. Social accounting system in India classified into is

(a) enterprise, households and government
(b) assets, liabilities and debt position
(c) public sector, private sector and joint sector
(d) income, product and expenditure

2. Forced savings refer to

(a) taxes on individual income and wealth
(b) compulsory deposits imposed on income tax payers
(c) provident fund contribution of private sector employees
(d) reduction of consumption consequent to a rise in prices

3. The demand for labour is called

(a) direct demand
(b) derived demand
(c) factory demand
(d) market demand

4. Which of the following is not an investment expenditure in goods and services?

(a) Purchase of a house
(b) Purchase of a machinery
(c) An increase in business inventories
(d) Expansion of the main plant of a company

5. Which one of the following represents the savings of the private corporate sector?

(a) Total profits of a company
(b) Undistributed profits
(c) Excess of income over expenditure
(d) Dividends paid to share holders

6. Who presides over the joint session of Indian Parliament?

(a) President of India
(b) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
(c) Senior most Member of Parliament
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

7. Division of powers and independent Judiciary are the two important features of

(a) unitary form of Government
(b) democratic form of Government
(c) federal form of Government
(d) socialist form of Government

8. Which article of the Indian Constitution did Dr BR Ambedkar term as the ‘Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution’?

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 14

9. Who was the first to use the term ‘State’?

(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) Machiavelli
(d) Hobbes

10. Under which article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 33

11. Pulakesin II was the greatest ruler of the

(a) Chalukyas of Badami
(b) Chalukyas of Kalyani
(c) Pallavas of Kanchi
(d) Cholas of Tamil Nadu

12. The Uttaramerur inscription provides information on the administration of the

(a) Satavahanas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Cholas
(d) Chalukyas

13. Pitts India Act of 1784 was a/an

(a) regulating act
(b) ordinance
(c) resolution
(d) white paper

14. Which one of the following statements is not true in respect of AO Hume?

(a) He was a member of the Indian Civil Service
(b) He founded the Indian National Congress
(c) He presided over the Congress Annual Sessions twice
(d) He was an ornithologist

15. Which of the following movements saw the biggest peasant guerilla war on the eve of independence?

(a) Tebhaga Movement
(b) Punnapra Vayalar Movement
(c) Telangana Movement
(d) Noakhali Movement

16. Maps on large scale, representing both natural and man-made features are called

(a) Topographic maps
(b) Thematic maps
(c) Atlas maps
(d) Wall maps

17. Which river in India flows in a rift-valley?

(a) Tapti
(b) Narmada
(c) Krishna
(d) Cauvery

18. A narrow strip of land that connects two larger land masses is called

(a) peninsula
(b) cape
(c) isthmus
(d) strait

19. Tiny marine animals which constitute limestone skeletons are called

(a) foraminifera
(b) coral reefs
(c) diatoms
(d) clamitomonous

20. Apatanis are the major tribal group of

(a) Nagaland
(b) Sikkim
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Jharkhand

21. Which of the following plant pigments absorbs in red and far-red region of light?

(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Phytochrome
(c) Cryptochrome
(d) Carotenoids

22. The process through which excess of light energy is dissipated in photosynthesis is known as

(a) scavenging
(b) photolysis
(c) photophosphorylation
(d) quenching

23. AIDS virus destroys

(a) rnonocytes
(b) neutrophils
(c) basophils
(d) lymphocytes

24. Teeth and Bones acquire strength and rigidity from

(a) fluorine
(b) chlorine
(c) sodium
(d) calcium

25. The type of tail found in Shark is

(a) homocercal
(b) heterocercal
(c) diphycercal
(d) protocercal

26. The Sigmoid Colon is part of

(a) anal canal
(b) large Intestine
(c) ileum
(d) small Intestine

27. A good conductor while carrying current is

(a) negatively charged
(b) positively charged
(c) electrically neutral
(d) alternately charged positive and negative

28. The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian at a place is

(a) dip
(b) declination
(c) latitude
(d) azimuth

29. The device used for measuring the wavelength of X-rays is

(a) cyclotron
(b) bragg spectrometer
(c) mass spectrometer
(d) GM counter

30. Alpha particle is the nucleus of an atom of

(a) hydrogen
(b) helium
(c) oxygen
(d) lthium

General: 

SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013 "Reasoning"

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SSC CGL (Pre.) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2013

Subject: Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-4) Select the related letters/ words / numbers from the given alternatives.

1. Tanning : Leather : : Pyrotechnics : ?

(a) Bombs
(b) Fireworks
(c) Wool
(d) Machinery

2. King : Throne : : Rider : ?

(a) Chair
(b) Horse
(c) Seat
(d) Saddle

3. F : 216 : : L : ?

(a) 1728
(b) 1700
(c) 1600
(d) 1723

4. MOUSE : KPSTC : : LIGHT : ?

(a) MGHFU
(b) JGEFR
(c) JJEIR
(d) MJHIU

5. If 264 * 2 = 6, 870 * 3 = 11, then what should 735 * 5 be?

(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 03
(d) 05

6. Which one of the given response would be a meaningful order of the following?

1. Implementation
2. Conceptual Modelling
3. Requirements Analysis
4. Logical Modelling
5. Physical Model
6. Schema Refinement

(a) 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 1
(b) 1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4
(c) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5

Directions (Q. Nos. 7 and 8) Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

7. b_ab_b_aab_b

(a) abbb
(b) abba
(c) baaa
(d) aabb

8. _bcab_cabc_abca_b

(a) abca
(b) aabc
(c) bbca
(d) abac

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-13) Find the odd word/number/number-pair from the given alternatives.

9.

(a) Head
(b) Heed
(c) Led
(d) Heap

10.

(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Night-blindness
(d) Influenza

11.

(a) Rain
(b) Shower
(c) Sleet
(d) Raisin

12.

(a) 547-563
(b) 71-55
(c) 517-523
(d) 248-231

13. 10, 13, 234, 681, 997

(a) 10
(b) 234
(c) 13
(d) 681

Directions (Q. Nos, 14-18) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

14. AFI, JOR, MRU, ?

(a) GJN
(b) HMP
(c) PMO
(d) RJL

15. bc, cde, de, efg, fg, ?

(a) ghi
(b) fgh
(c) hij
(d) ijk

16. C - 3, E - 5, G - 7, I - 9, ?,

(a) X - 24, M - 21
(b) K - 11, M - 13
(c) O - 15, X - 24
(d) M - 18, K - 14

17. 5, 16, 51, 158, ?

(a) 1452
(b) 483
(c) 481
(d) 1454

18. 9 * 2 : 9 * 9 : : 9 * 5 : ?

(a) 9 × 4
(b) 9 × 6
(c) 9 × 7
(d) 9 × 8

19. Priti scored more than Rahul. Yamuna scored as much as Divya. Lokita scored less than Manju. Rahul scored more than Yamuna. Manju scored less than Divya. Who scored the lowest?

(a) Manju
(b) Yamuna
(c) Lokita
(d) Rahul

20. A man showed a boy next to him and said “He is the son of my wife’s sister-in-law but I am the only child of my parents.” How is my son related to him?

(a) Cousin
(b) Brother
(c) Uncle
(d) Nephew

21. Find the correct group of signs to solve the equation.

24 * 16 * 8 * 32

(a) ¸ – =
(b) – + =
(c) × ¸ =
(d) + – =

22. Sunil is the son of Kesav. Simran, Kesav’s sister, has a son Maruti and daughter Sita. Prem is the maternal uncle of Maruti. How is Sunil related to Maruti?

(a) Cousin
(b) Maternal Uncle
(c) Brother
(d) Nephew

Directions (Q. Nos. 23-25) From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

23. MANUSCRIPT

(a) PRIMUS
(b) SMART
(c) RUSTIC
(d) MASTER

24. SEGREGATION

(a) NATION
(b) GREAT
(c) GREETINGS
(d) SEATING

25. CONSTITUTIONAL

(a) TUITION
(b) TALENT
(c) LOCATION
(d) CONSULT

26. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned an even numerical value by giving A = 2,
B = 4 and so on, what would be the total value of the letters for the word ‘LADY’ when similarly coded?

(a) 74
(b) 72
(c) 84
(d) 82

27. If the word ‘LEADER’ is coded as 20 - 13 - 9 - 12 - 13 - 26, how would you write ‘LIGHT’?

(a) 20 - 16 - 17 - 15 - 27
(b) 20 - 15 - 16 - 18 - 23
(c) 20 - 17 - 15 - 16 - 28
(d) 20 - 16 - 15 - 17 - 22

28. If the first and second letters in the word ‘COMMUNICATIONS’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which letter would be the tenth letter counting from your right?

(a) U
(b) A
(c) T
(d) N

29. Which of the following interchanges of numbers would make the given equation correct?

8 × 20 ¸ 3 + 9 – 5 = 38

(a) 3, 8
(b) 8, 9
(c) 3, 5
(d) 3, 9

30. Put the correct mathematical signs in the following equation from the given alternatives.

33 ? 11 ? 3 ? 6 = 115

(a) +, –, ×
(b) ×, ¸, –
(c) ¸, ×, ×
(d) –, ×, +

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