SSC JHT Question Papers & ANS Keys : General Hindi Set-1

(Held on 15 June 2017)

​

(E-Book) SSC JHT - Junior Hindi Translators Exam Papers PDF Download

Study Kit for SSC JHT Exam

(Download) SSC CGL Tier-1 Question Paper (Evening Sitting) :

Held on 21-04-2013 -366SH6

Topics Covered

• General Intelligence and Reasoning
• General Awareness
• Numerical Aptitude
• English Comprehension

Type : pdf

Size: 2.00 MB

(Download) SSC CGL Tier-1 Question Paper (Morning Sitting) :

Held on 19-05-2013 -012KP1

Topics Covered

• General Intelligence and Reasoning
• General Awareness
• Numerical Aptitude
• English Comprehension

Type : pdf

Size: 2.26 MB

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

Click Here to Download Full Paper

Click Here To Download Answer Key "Booklet No: 012KP1"

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Study Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

(Previous Year Papers) SSC CGL: (Tier-II) English Language

Exam "Held on: 16-09-2012"

Directions: In questions no. 1 to 5, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (S).Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the Four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval () in the Answer Sheet.

1. After the treatment, he was relived ­­­­­­­­­­­the pain

(A) for
(B) Of
(C) from
(D) With

2. Several items have been left____________ from

(A) Out
(B) Within
(C) Behind1
(D) Off

3. I have not paid my school fees_________

(A) Alread
(B) Now
(C) Then
(D) Yet

4. She has seen this movie twice.

(A) Yet
(B) Often
(C) Already
(D) Quite

5. My father has _________ returned home from work.

(A) Now
(B) Never
(C) Defense
(D) Just

Directions: In questions no. 6 to 8, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

6. Onslaught

(A) Counterattack
(B) Resistance
(C) Defense
(D) Invasion

7. Grotesque

(A) Exposure
(B) Stupidity
(C) Absurd
(D) Trial

8. Ignominy

(A) Exposure
(B) Stupidity
(C) Disgrace
(D) Trial

Directions: In Questions no. 9 to 11, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

9. Fervent

(A) Partial
(B) Dispassionate
(C) Ardent
(D) Decent

10. Garrulous

(A) Verbose
(B) Serious reticent
(C) Gaunt
(D) Gaunt

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

11. Scrupulous

(A) Scrupulous
(B) Wise
(C) Caring
(D) Careful

Directions: In questions no. 12 to 14, there are four different words out of which one is wrongly spelt find the wrongly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval () in the Answer

12.

(A) fervent
(B) Favour
(C) Fervou
(D) Decision

13.

(A) Decision
(B) Position
(C) Incision
(D) Collusion

14.

(A) Heterogeneous
(B) Virtuous
(C) Ingenious
(D) Ingenuous

Directions: In questions no. 15 to 24, four alternatives are given for the given idiom / phrase of as underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ phrase and mark it the Answer Sheet.

15. The mother- in law expected her daughter-in law to be always at her beck and call.

(A) Ready to withdraw
(B) Ready to serve
(C) Ready to call
(D) Ready to play

16. When I opened the door, my books were lying at sixes and sevens.

(A) In neat order
(B) In disorder
(C) Under the table
(D) In piles on the floor

17. His behavior indicates that he has blue blood

(A) feels depressed often
(B) Suffers anemia
(C) Belongs to a royal family
(D) Has diseased blood

18. I am trying to figure out the hidden agenda in yesterday’s meeting.

(A) Wicked motive
(B) False Idea
(C) Indirect tax
(D) Secret reason

19 . He always seems to get the lion’s share of the projects

(A) An insignificant part
(B) The minimum share
(C) An equal share
(D) A major share

20. Oliver Twist was between black and blue and blue when he asked for more food

(A) Remonstrated
(B) Whipped badly
(C) Thrashed severely
(D) Given a scolding

21. To pull wool over someone’s eyes

(A) To investigate
(B) To reprimand someone
(C) To deceive another
(D) To keep a secret

22. I find myself in a position where I have to choose between the devil and the deep blue sea.

(A) Near the horrid sea
(B) In a state of confusion
(C) Out of one’s proper place
(D) Between two equal evils

23. Even a small toy can become an apple of discord between two Children.

(A) Cause of happiness
(B) Cause of meeting
(C) Tasty like an apple
(D) Cause of dispute

24. Do you think this examination is a hard nut to crack?

(A) Similar to planting a nut tree
(B) A difficult job
(C) A Boring job
(D) Similar to to cracking a nut

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Study Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

(Download) SSC CGL Tier-1 Question Paper (Evening Sitting) :

Held on 19-05-2013 - 215QJ1

Topics Covered

• General Intelligence and Reasoning
• General Awareness
• Numerical Aptitude
• English Comprehension

Type : Pdf

Size: 3.16 MB

SSC CGL (Tier - 1, 1st shift) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2012

Subject: English Comprehension

Directions (1-5): In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none, Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error then your answer is (d) i.e. No error.

1. Air pollution, together with littering. (a)/ are causing many problems(b)/ Vin our cities. (c)/ No error (d)

2. The accused refused (a)/ to answer to the policeman (b)/ on duty.(c)/No error (d).

3. What is (a)/ the use of me (b)/ attending the session? (c)/ No error (d)

4. We met our prospective employer (a) // for a briefing session(b) / in the Taj Hotel. (c) / No error (d).

5. Because of the severe snow storm and the road blocks, (a)/ the air force dropped food and (b)/ medical supplies close to the city. (c) No error (d)

Directions (6-10): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

6. ______ pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to adopt them.

(a) Although
(b) However
(c) Because
(d) Despite

7. It is not for a man to be confined to the pursuit of wealth.

(a) healthy
(b) easy
(c) possible
(d) common

8. ___ his being innocent of the crime, the judge sentenced him to one year imprisonment.

(a) Inspite of
(b) In case of
(c) On account of
(d) In the event of

9. It is a story of two men and a batch of armoured cars.

(a) deceased
(b) diseased
(c) decrepit
(d) defeated

10. Although there is ________ gun-fire, there is no stiff resistance to the revolutionary army,

(a) bitter
(b) meagre
(c) continuous
(d) sporadic

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given ‘word as your answer.

11. Vociferous

(a) violent
(b) loud
(c) secret
(d) true

12. Fictional

(a) genuine
(b) authentic
(c) fanciful
(d) real

SSC CGL (Tier - 1, 1st shift) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2012

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

1. The next term of the series 1, 5, 12 24, 43 is

(a) 51
(b) 62
(c) 71
(d) 78

2. The least multiple of 13 which when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves remainder 3 in each case is

(a) 3780
(b) 3783
(c) 2520
(d) 2522

3. The simplest value of

4. A and B are partners in a business. A contributes 1/4 of the capital for 15 months and B received 2/3 of the profit. Find for how long B’s money was used?

(a) 6 months
(b) 8 months
(c) 10 months
(d) 12 months

5. If 21 is added to a number, it becomes 7 less than thrice of the number. Then the number is

(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 19

6. Two men A and B started a job in which A was thrice as good as B and therefore took 60 days less than B to finish the job. How many days will they take to finish the job, if they take to finish the job, if they start working together?

(a) 15 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 45/2 days
(d) 25 days

7. A rectangle garden is 100 m × 80 m. There is a path along the garden and just outside it. Width of the path is 10m. The area of the path is

(a) 1900 sq m
(b) 2400 sq m
(c) 3660 sq m
(d) 4000 sq m

8. A dealer offered a machines for sale for Rs. 27,500 but even if he had charge 10% less, the would have made a profit of 10%. The actual cost of the machine is

(a) Rs. 22000
(b) Rs. 24500
(c) Rs. 22500
(d) Rs. 22275

9. An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8 : 5 and increases their wages in the ratio 7 : 9. As a result, the overall wages bill is

(a) Increased in the ration 56 : 69
(b) Decreased in the ratio 56 : 45
(c) Increased in the ratio 13 : 17
(d) Decreased in the ratio 17 : 13

10. The average age of a jury of 5 is 40. If a member aged 35 resigns and man aged 35 resigns and a man aged becomes a member, then the average age of the new jury is

(a) 30
(b) 38
(c) 40
(d) 42

11. With average speed of 40 km/hour, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 35 km hour, it is late by 15 minutes. The total journey is

(a) 30 km
(b) 40 km
(c) 70 km
(d) 80 km

12. A man makes a profit of 20% on the sale by selling 20 articles for Rs. 1. The number of articles he bought by Rs. 1 is

(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 30

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

13. The number of seats in an auditorium is increased by 25%. The price of a ticket is also increased by 12%. Then the increase in revenue collection will be

(a) 40%
(b) 35%
(c) 45%
(d) 48%

14. A ship is moving at a speed of 30 km/hr. To know the depth of the ocean beneath it, it sends a radio wave which travels at a speed 200 m/s. The ship receives the signal after it has moved 500 m. The depth of the ocean is

15. A person takes a loan of Rs. 10,0000 partly from a bank at 8% p.a. and remaining from another bank at 10% p.a. He pays a total interest of Rs. 950 per annum. Amount of loan taken from the first bank (in Rs.) is

(a) 2500
(b) 5200
(c) 2050
(d) 5020

(a) 535
(b) 1030
(c) 790
(d) 970

SSC JHT Exam 2017 Answer Keys

Combined Recruitment of Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator, Senior Hindi Translator and Hindi Pradhyapak Examination 2017 held on 15.06.2017.

Uploading of Answer Key

The tentative Answer Keys for the Combined Recruitment of Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator, Senior Hindi Translator and Hindi Pradhyapak Examination 2017 have been uploaded on the website of the Commission i.e. www.ssc.nic.in for submitting representations, if any, upto 5.00 PM on 23.6.2017 through the on-line mode only, on payment of Rs. 100/- per answer.

Representations received after the due date will not be entertained under any circumstances.

Answer Key for Combined Recruitment of Junior Hindi Translator,Junior Translator, Senior Hindi Translator and Hindi Pradhyapak Examination 2017- Click Here

Click here for SSC JHT Exam 2017 Representation

Click Here For SSC JHT Exam Answer Keys Set-1 (Held on 15 June 2017)

Click Here For SSC JHT Exam Answer Keys Set-2 (Held on 15 June 2017)

Courtesy : SSC

SSC CGL (Tier - 1, 1st shift) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2012

Subject: General Awareness

1. Which one of the following is an example for a non-economic good?

(a) Doctor’s service
(b) Teacher’s service
(c) Mother’s service
(d) Banker’s service

2. Which one of the following committee is associated with banking sector reforms in India ?

(a) L. C. Gupta
(b) Narsimhan
(c) Chakravarty
(d) Kelkar

3. Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?

(a) Fixing margin requirements
(b) Variable interest rates
(c) Open market operations
(d) Credit rationing

4. The 13th Five Year Plan will be operative for the period

(a) 2010 - 2015
(b) 2011 - 2016
(c) 2012 - 2017
(d) 2013 - 2018

5. The national income of a nation is the

(a) Government’s annual revenue
(b) Sum total of factor incomes
(c) Surplus of public sector enterprises
(d) Exports minus imports

6. The Constitutional Amendment Act that has introduced safeguards against the misuse of proclamation of national emergency is the

(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 44th Amendment Act
(d) 45th Amendment Act

7. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the

(a) Governor
(b) President
(c) Law Minister
(d) Prime Minister

8. The main reason for the growth of communalism in India is

(a) Educational and economic backwardness of minority groups
(b) Political consciousness
(c) Social inequalities
(d) Imposing ban on communal organisations

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

9. A Retired Judge of a High Court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in

(a) Supreme Court
(b) Any Court in India
(c) High Courts
(d) Except the High Court where he retired

10. Which one of the following does not match?

(a) Hindu Marriage Act : 1955
(b) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act: 1971
(c) Domestic Violence on Women Act: 1990
(d) Cruelty against Women: 1995

11. Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India ?

(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) Lord Canning

12. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was defeated in the Second Battle of Tarain by

(a) Mahmud Ghazni
(b) Muhammad Ghori
(c) Qutbuddin Aibak
(d) Yalduz

13. The original name of Nana Phadnavis was

(a) Mahadaji Sindhia
(b) Tukoji Holkar
(c) Narayan Rao
(d) Balaji Janardan Bhanu

14. Who among the following first propounded the idea of Basic Education?

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Dayanand Saraswati

15. Arrange the following in chronological order:

I. Dandi March
II. Simon Commission
III. Poona Pact
IV. Gandhi Irwin Pact

(a) II, I, III, IV
(b) II, I, IV, III
(c) IV, III, I, II
(d) IV, III, II I

16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Darjeeling - West Bengal
(b) Mount Abu - Rajasthan
(c) Kodaikanal - Tamil Nadu
(d) Simla - Uttar Pradesh

17. The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on

(a) January 30th
(b) December 22nd
(c) September 22nd
(d) July 4th

18. Consider the following pairs;

Tributary Main Piver
1. Chambal Yamuna
2. Sone Narmada
3. Manas Brahmputra

Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Only 3

19. A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is

(a) Dew
(b) Frost
(c) Smog
(d) Mist

20. The total population divided by available arable land area is referred to as

(a) Population density
(b) Nutritional density
(c) Agricultural density
(d) Industrial density

21. Green glands are associated with

(a) Reproduction
(b) Excretion
(c) Respiration
(d) Digestion

22. During respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of

(a) Active transport
(b) Diffusion
(c) Diffusion and active transport
(d) Osmosis

23. Heart is devoid of

(a) Cardiac muscle
(b) Involuntary muscle
(c) Voluntary muscle
(d) Smooth muscle

24. The soil salinity is measured by

(a) Conductivity meter
(b) Hygrometer
(c) Psychrometer
(d) Auxanometer

25. Which of the following is a fungal disease?

(a) Leucoderma
(b) Eczema
(c) Ringworm
(d) Elephantiasis

26. Chickenpox is caused by

(a) DNA virus
(b) Variola virus
(c) Streptococcus
(d) Vi rio cholerae

27. In struments can be shielded from outside magnetic effects by surrounding them with

(a) Iron shield
(b) Rubber shield
(c) Brass shield
(d) Glass shield

28. Find the odd one.

(a) Marble
(b) Blackboard
(c) Chalk
(d) Slaked lime

29. The following is a pseudo-force

(a) Centrepetal force
(b) Centrifugal reaction force
(c) Centrifugal force
(d) Strong nuclear force

30. The hydraulic brake used in automobiles is a direct application of

(a) Archimedes principle
(b) Torricellean law
(c) Bernoulli’s Theorem
(d) Pascal’s law

31. Of the following, which is the fastest?

(a) CD-ROM
(b) RAM
(c) Registers
(d) Cache

32. An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is

(a) Mesh
(b) Star
(c) Tree
(d) Ring

33. Amides can be converted to amines by the reaction named

(a) Perkin
(b) Claisen
(c) Claisen
(d) Clemmesen

34. The base used as an antacid is

(a) Calcium hydroxide
(b) Barium hydroxide
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Silver hydroxide

35. A process which is not helpful in the prevention of rusting of iron is

(a) annealing
(b) applying grease
(c) galvanising
(d) painting

36. Denatured alcohol

(a) is a form of alcohol
(b) is unfit for drinking as it contains poisonous substances
(c) contains coloured impurities
(d) is sweet’ to taste

37. Phenolics as pollutants can be removed from waste water by use of

(a) Ion exchange resin technique
(b) Electrolyte decomposition technique
(c) Reverse osmosis method
(d) Polymeric adsorbents

38. The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on

(a) micro-organisms and fishes
(b) micro-organisms and zoo planktons
(c) fishes and reptiles
(d) producers and consumers

39. Supersonic air planes create a shock wave called

(a) Transition wave
(b) Ultrasound
(c) Transverse wave
(d) Sonic boom

40. The main factor which determines balance of nature is

(a) human activities
(b) Rabit and habitat
(c) environmental conditions
(d) availability of food

41. The danger signals are red while the eye is more sensitive to yellow because

(a) absorption in red is less than yellow and hence red is visi ble from a distance
(b) scattering in yellow light is less than red
(c) the wavelength of red light is more than yellow light
(d) none of the above reasons

42. One of the following Chief Ministers received the Highest Civilian Award “Bharat Ratna”

(a) Lalu Prasad Yadav of Bihar
(b) Late M. G. Ramachandran of Tamil Nadu
(c) Jyothi Basu of West Bengal
(d) Late N. T. Rama Rao of Andhra Pradesh

43. The first ‘disabled athelete’ to qualify for an able bodied event in the 2012 London Olympics in 400 metres race is

(a) Oscar Pistorius
(b) Walter Rallis
(c) Raymond Irchovich
(d) Gerald Hangovin

44. Which one of the following film actors has been conferred the Honorary Doctorate in Arts and Culture by the Bedford University, London?

(a) Shahrukh Khan
(b) Amir Khan
(c) Saif Ali Khan
(d) Anil Kapoor

45. The city of Prayag was named Allahabad -the city of Allah by

(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Akbar
(c) Shahjehan
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar

46. Spot the odd one from the following:

(a) Tsunami
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Windmills
(d) Cyclones

47. Who among the following has won the Pantaloon’s Femina Miss India World, 2012 Award?

(a) Prachi Misra
(b) Vanya Misra
(c) RocheIla Maria
(d) Sandhya Agarwal

48. Which one of the following statements is not correct about India’s population as per the 2011 census?

(a) Literacy rate has gone up to 74% from 65%
(b) Kerala has the highest literacy rate
(c) Bihar has the lowest literacy rate
(d) Men outnumber women in growth of literates

49. Who advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model to eradicate rural poverty ?

(a) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Sri Abhijit Sen
(c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(d) Prof. A. M. Patha

50. Which one of the following though called a garden is infact, not a garden?

(a) Vrindavan Garden of My sore
(b) Hanging Garden of Mumbai
(c) Eden Garden of Kolkata
(d) Shalimar Garden of Kashmir

Answer Key

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

SSC CGL (Tier - 1, 1st shift) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning

Directions (1-9): In each of the following questions, select the related letters / words / numbers from the given alternatives.

1. 9 : 80: : 100 : ?

(a) 901
(b) 1009
(c) 9889
(d) 9999

2. 25: 125 :: 36 : ?

(a) 180
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 318

3. 335: 21 6:: 987:?

(a) 868
(b) 867
(c) 872
(d) 888

4. BEGK: ADFJ :: PSVY:?

(a) ROUX
(b) ORUX
(c) LQUT
(d) LOQT

5. AZBY: CXDW :: EVFU : ?

(a) GTHS
(b) GHTS
(c) GS.TH
(d) TGSH

6. BDFH: SUWY :: CEGI : ?

(l) QTWZ
(b) PTVX
(c) JLNP
(d) TVXZ

7. food: man:: fuel:?

(a) wood
(b) fire
(c) heat
(d) smoke

8. Spiritual: Belief:: Orchestral:?

(a) Theatre
(b) Situation
(c) Music
(d) Direction

9. Latter :Former :: Hazardous: ?

(a) Risky
(b) Comfortable
(c) Safe
(d) Harmful

Directions (10-18): In each of the following questions, find the odd word/number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

10.

(a) VWY
(b) QRT
(c) LMO
(d) JKL

11.

(a) B E
(b) G J
(c) N P
(d) Q R

12.

(a) 400
(b) 484
(c) 625
(d) 729

13.

(a) 1000
(b) 1725
(c) 2744
(d) 4096

14.

(a) 12-16
(b) 60-80
(c) 30-50
(d) 36-48

15.

(a) C X
(b) D W
(c) J Q
(d) L R

16.

(a) Cyclotron
(b) Basic
(c) Pascal
(d) Fortran

17.

(a) Rooster
(b) Buck
(c) Gander
(d) Peahen

18.

(a) Booklet
(b) Pamphlet
(c) Voucher
(d) Brochure

19. Which word will appear third in the dictionary?

(a) BALLIUM
(b) BALLISTICS
(c) BALLERINA
(d) BALLISTITE

20. Which word will appear last in the dictionary?

(a) laugh
(b) latch
(c) laurels
(d) latitude

21. Arrange the given words in a meaningful order:

1. INFANT
2. ADOLESCENT
3. CHILD
4. OLD
5. ADULT

(a) 3, 1,2,4,5
(b) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

Directions (22-23) : In each of the following questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

22. c _ ab _ ca _ bc _ a

(a) bcab
(b) abcb
(c) bacb
(d) cbac

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

23. _ ba _ bab _ babb _ b

(a) baaa
(b) abbb
(c) babb
(d) abab

Directions (24-27): In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

24. 500, 484, 459, __?__, 374

(a) 384
(b) 432
(c) 418
(d) 423

25. MNOPWXYZRSTUBCD __?__

(a) A
(b) E
(c) 1
(d) F

26. 60, 69, 85, ___?__ ,146

(a) 110
(b) 117
(c) 109
(d) 120

27. 46, 50, 47, 55, 49, 61, __?__

(a) 54
(b) 52
(c) 57
(d) 51

28. The average age of 25 subordinates in an office is 30 years. If the age of Manager is added, the average age increases to 31 years. What is the age of the Manager?

(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 46
(d) 56

29. Class A has students twice that of class B. After adding 20 students to class A and 30 students to class B, the total number of students in both the classes is 140. What is the number of students in class A in the beginning?

(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 140

30. Find the lowest number which is divided by 8, 12, 15 and 20 leaves the remainder 2.

(a) 360
(b) 242
(c) 122
(d) 82

31. If B becomes A and P becomes O, what will K become in the English alphabet?

(a) L
(b) J
(c) H
(d) N

32. The given word is followed by 4 responses, one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the word given ‘CAMBRIDGE’. Find out the word.

(a) BRIDGE
(b) BRIDE
(c) CAME
(d) CAMP

33. If SEASONAL is written as ESSANOLA, how can SEPA RATE be written in that code?

(a) SEAP ARET
(b) ESPARATE
(c) ESPAARTE
(d) ESAPARET

34. In certain code, RAGHAVAN is written as GARVAHNA. In that code which word will be written as MATHAVAN?

(a) TAMVAHNA
(b) TAMVAHAN
(c) TAMHAVNA
(d) MATVAHNA

35. If ‘FRIEND’ is coded as ‘IULHQG’, how will you code ‘ENEMY’?

(a) HQHPB
(b) HQHPA
(c) HQEMY
(d) HQHPG

36. In a coded language, if the word EQUATION is coded as GSWCVKQP, then how is the word DONKEY coded?

(a) FQPMGA
(b) YEKNOD
(c) GWCVKJ
(d) PQKUCW

37. If38 + 15 = 66 and 29 + 36 = 99, then 82 + 44 = ?

(a) 77
(b) 88
(c) 80
(d) 94

38. If + means ÷, - means x, x means +, ÷ means –, give the value for
45 + 9 - 3 × 15 ÷ 2

(a) 40
(b) 36
(c) 56
(d) 28

Directions (39-40): In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

39.

7 8 6
4 9 5
3 2 ?
25 70 29

(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 1
(d) 5

40.

3 4 5
6 7 8
9 1 2
57 11 ?

(a) 42
(b) 21
(b) 11
(d) 18

41. From the given details, estimate the number of people affected by Tuberculosis in particular locality in the year 1994.
1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
? 92 113 141 176

(a) 9 9
(b) 8 5
(c) 7 1
(d) 7 8

42. A man started from a place walked towards North for 5 km then turned 90° to his right and walked another 5 km. Then he turned 45° to his right and walked 2 km and turned 45° to his left. What is his direction now?

(a) South
(b) South East
(c) East
(d) South West

43. A boy running towards South, turns to his right and runs, Then he turns to his right and finally turns to his left. Towards which direction is he running now?

(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) North

Directions (44-45): In the following questions, one statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

44. Statement

To keep myself updated, I always listen to 9 O’clock news on radio.

Conclusions:
I. The person does not read newspaper.
II. Recent news is available only on radio.

(a) Only conclusion I is implicit
(b) Only conclusion II is implicit
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is implicit
(d) Both conclusions I and II are implicit

45. Statement

All wealthy people are happy in life.

Conclusions:
I. Wealth and happiness are directly related.
II. Wealth leads to happiness in life.

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Directions: In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the question figure?

46.

47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden! embedded.

Directions: In the following question, a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

48.

49. Select the correct option that will be the mirror reflection of the problem figure.

Directions: In the following question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘P’ can be represented by 11, 32, etc. and ‘K’ can be represented by 65, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SALM.

50.

(a) 55, 20, 56, 69
(b) 79, 13, 69, 75
(c) 96, 34, 76, 89
(d) 67, 21, 85, 97

Answer Key

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

(Download) SSC : Combined Graduate Level Tier - 1 Exam Paper (Evening Sitting) :

Held On 01.07.2012

Topics Covered

• General Intelligence and Reasoning 
• General Awareness
• Numerical Aptitude
• English Comprehension

Type : PDF

Size: 2.24 MB

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

Click Here to Download Full Paper

Download Full Answer Key

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

(Download) SSC : Combined Graduate Level Tier - 1 Exam Paper (Morning Sitting) :

Held On 01.07.2012

Topics Covered

• General Intelligence and Reasoning 
• General Awareness
• Numerical Aptitude
• English Comprehension

Type : PDF

Size: 3.2 MB

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF

Click Here to Download Full Paper

Download Full Answer Key

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Study Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Exam Paper - 2010

"English Comprehension" (2nd shift)

Subject: English Comprehension

Directions (1-5): In the following questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

1. The company let me ____ time off work.

(a) take
(b) taking
(c) to take
(d) took

2. I assume ____ with me.

(a) every one agreeing
(b) that every one agrees
(c) every one to agree
(d) that every one to agree

3. ___ the rain forests is very important, if we do not want the flora and fauna found there to become extinct.

(a) Reserving
(b) Destroying
(c) Preserving
(d) Maintaining

4. If I had helped him, he ______ .

(a) will not be drowned
(b) would not be drowned
(c) will not have drowned
(d) would not have drowned

5. When will you hand ____ your assignment?

(a) in
(b) back
(c) down
(d) into

Directions (6-10): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

6. Barren

(a) good
(b) wholesome
(c) unproductive
(d) profitable

7. Infamy

(a) notoriety
(b) glory
(c) integrity
(d) familiarity

8. Intrepid

(a) hesitant
(b) fearless
(c) extrovert
(d) rash

9. Prodigal

(a) exclusive
(b) productive
(c) lavish
(d) carefree

10. Perspicuous

(a) relevant
(b) precise
(c) brief
(d) clear

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

11. Liberty

(a) serenity
(b) slavery
(c) serfdom
(d) subordination

12. Disorderly

(a) chaotic
(b) organized
(c) adjusted
(d) arranged

13. Elevation

(a) reduction
(b) humiliation
(c) depression
(d) debasement

14. Glossy

(a) dull
(b) shining
(c) weary
(d) tired

15. Appropriate

(a) dissimilar
(b) incomparable
(c) unsuitable
(d) disparate

Directions (16-20): In the following questions, four alternative for the given idiom/phrase in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

16. a damp squib

(a) rainy weather
(b) a disappointing result
(c) a skirt in a laundry
(d) None of the above

17. in cold bold

(a) angrily
(b) deliberately
(c) excitedly
(d) slowly

18. to make someone for a ride

(a) to give a ride to someone
(b) to deceive someone
(c) to be indifferent
(d) to disclose a secret

19. to move heaven and earth

(a) to cause an earthquake
(b) to try everything possible
(c) to pray to all Gods
(d) to travel in a rocket

20. to smell a rat

(a) to smell foul
(b) to see a rat
(c) to chase a rat
(d) to be suspicious

Directions (21-25): In the following questions, a sentence is given which/a part of which may need improvement. Alternatives are given at (A), (B) and (C) which may be a better option. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D).

21. What do you for go to school?

(a) For what do you go to school?
(b) What do you go for to school?
(c) What do you go to school for?
(d) No improvement

22. He pleased the directors and his completed his report in good time.

(a) He pleased the directors in good time and this completed his report.
(b) He completed his report in good time and this pleased the directors.
(c) He pleased the directors and completed his report and this in good time.
(d) No improvement

23. The courtiers used to tell the King how efficient an administrator he was all day long.

(a) The courtiers all day long used to tell the King how efficient an administrator he was.
(b) The courtiers used all day long to tell the King how efficient an administrator he was.
(c) The courtiers used to tell the King all day long how efficient an administrator he was.
(d) No improvement

24. Every Saturday I go four for shopping.

(a) for shops
(b) to shopping
(c) for shop
(d) No improvement

25. We had a grand party and we enjoyed very much.

(a) We had a grand party and enjoyed very much.
(b) We had a grand party to enjoy very much.
(c) We had a grand party and we enjoyed ourselves very much.
(d) No improvement

Directions (26-30): In the following questions, our of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

26. An inscription on a tomb

(a) espionage
(b) epilogue
(c) epitaph
(d) elegy

27. Feeling inside you which tells you what is right and what is wrong:

(a) cleverness
(b) conscience
(c) consciousness
(d) fear

28. Release of a prisoner from jail on certain terms and condition.

(a) Parole
(b) Parley
(c) Pardon
(d) Acquittal

29. Loss of memory

(a) Ambrosia
(b) Amnesia
(c) Insomnia
(d) Forgetting

30. To struggle helplessly

(a) Flounder
(b) Founder
(c) Fumble
(d) Finger

Directions (31-35): In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

31.

(a) qestalt
(b) imbrolios
(c) ampasse
(d) recondite

32.

(a) hindrance
(b) corespondence
(c) insurence
(d) assurence

33.

(a) adversery
(b) adultary
(c) advisory
(d) arbitrary

34.

(a) rogue
(b) colleague
(c) diluge
(d) allege

35.

(a) malignant
(b) impertinant
(c) independant
(d) neglegent

Directions (36-40): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about.t hen fill in the blanks with the help of the alternative given.

Almost every full moon night, the officials in Andaman and Nicobar Islands take part in a cautious ritual. The tribesmen watch from a safe distance as the officials (186) the island in a boat (187) gifts for them. The islanders come (188) hesitantly only after the officials (189) dumped the coconuts brought (190) them onto the beach and begin (191) away from their small island. On some nights are tribles even (192) up enough courage to swim upto a few feet (193) from the boat. The officials maintain that they do (194) want to interfere with the way of life on the tribals. The island (195) heavily on the maintained for most goods.

36.

(a) approach
(b) depart
(c) present
(d) absent

37.

(a) coming
(b) leaving
(c) carrying
(d) relieving

38.

(a) forward
(b) backward
(c) sides
(d) upward

39.

(a) has
(b) have
(c) had
(d) be

40.

(a) by
(b) to
(c) in
(d) for

41.

(a) watching
(b) seeing
(c) sailing
(d) stopping

42.

(a) leave
(b) muster
(c) come
(d) present

43.

(a) correctly
(b) distantly
(c) near
(d) away

44.

(a) no
(b) neither
(c) not
(d) nor

45.

(a) spy
(b) rely
(c) occupy
(d) reply

Directions (46-50): In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, the answer is (d).

46. A great many student (a) / have been declared (b) / successful. (c) / No error. (d)

47. We are going to launch (a) / this three-crores project (b) / within the next few months. (c)/ Nor error. (d)

48. I hope to go to shopping (a) / this weekend (b) / if the weather permits. (c) / No error. (d)

49. The lawyer asked (a)/ if it was worth to take (b)/ the matter to court. (c) / No error. (d)

50. After a carefully investigation (a) / we discovered (b) / that the house was infested with termites. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer Key

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

Current Affairs for SSC CGL Exams - 14 June 2017

::National::

Fresh movement for a separate State of Gorkhaland​

• The fresh movement for a separate State of Gorkhaland in the Darjeeling hills gathered steam with smaller parties backing the Gorkha Janmukti Morcha (GJM) demand.

• In an embarrassment for the Trinamool Congress, the Gorkha National Liberation Front (GNLF), with whom it had forged an alliance in the recent municipal polls, came out in full support of Gorkhaland.

• GJM general secretary Roshan Giri demanded a written clarification from the West Bengal government on the three language policy, which intends to make Bengali compulsory. He said the movement would be peaceful.

Full extradition case against Vijay Mallya is set to start this December​

• The full extradition case against liquor baron Vijay Mallya is set to start this December, on the grounds that it expected a second request for extradition to come from India, and to enable enough time for all the evidence to be gathered.

• The date will be confirmed at another case management hearing due on July 6, which Mr. Mallya will not attend.

• Mr. Mallya attended hearing at Westminster Magistrates Court, accompanied by his son.

• Speaking to reporters outside the courtroom ahead of the hearing, he took issue with media coverage of the case, accusing it of sensationalism and bias.

Health Ministry to test the babies for the Zika virus

• Although it detected 260 cases of microcephaly in India since February 2016, during an investigation to study the link between the condition and the Zika virus, the Health Ministry did not test the babies for the virus citing shortage of laboratory capacity.

• A three month old Delhi baby detected with ‘severe microcephaly’ tested negative for Zika, making it the first case where the Ministry ran blood work for Zika since the 2015-16 global outbreak

• Microcephaly is a rare congenital defect where a baby’s head is much smaller than what is normal for its age and sex.

• The requisite tests to investigate cause-and-effect between the virus and microcephaly, however, could not be carried out due to lack of laboratory strength, Ministry officials said.

• The Health Ministry started tracking cases of microcephaly in India in February 2016, after the World health Organization (WHO) requested countries to track and report cases.

• In 2016, a base line estimate of microcephaly-affected births in India was determined after a systematic review and meta-analysis of several studies. 

::International::

Massive landslide and floods in Bangladesh​

• At least 74 people, including Four army men, have been killed in massive landslides in Chittagong, followed by day-long downpour that has paralysed most of Bangladesh.

• At least 50 people died in Rangamati district of Chittagong Hill Tracts, while Chittagong and Bandarban districts saw 18 and six deaths. The rescuers fear that the number of casualties might rise once the debris are cleared .

• The army personnel were killed when they were conducting a rescue operation in Rangamati, according to the Inter Services Public Relation Directorate (ISPR).

• Members of the fire service, army and police are conducting rescue operations. District administrations have asked the people living in risky hill areas to move to safer places.

::Business and Economy::

SEBI has allowed commodity exchanges to introduce options trading​

• SEBI has allowed commodity exchanges to introduce options trading while ensuring that such contracts are introduced only on such commodities that currently register high volume in the futures segment.

• Further, on a pilot basis, each exchange will be allowed to start such options trading only on one commodity initially.

• The regulatory framework comes nearly two months after the SEBI board approved the launch of commodity options — an instrument that was being demanded ever since SEBI took over the regulation of the commodity markets in 2015.

• Regulator said that options can be launched only on such underlying futures contracts that are among the top five contracts in terms of total trading turnover value of previous twelve months.

• Further, the average daily turnover of underlying futures contracts qualifying for options has been pegged at Rs. 200 crore for agricultural & agri-processed commodities and Rs. 1,000 crore for other commodities in the previous twelve months.

• Given the eligibility criteria, Multi Commodity Exchange of India (MCX) — the largest in terms of market share — will be able to choose from commodities like crude, gold, silver, zinc and copper to launch options contracts.

• The combination of futures & options can give market participants the benefit of price discovery of futures and simpler risk management of options.

RBI identified 12 borrowers’ non-performing assets

• The Reserve Bank of India identified 12 borrowers’ non-performing assets, amounting to more than Rs. 5,000 crore each, for triggering proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code in a bid to pare banks’ bad debts.

• The unnamed accounts constitute 25% of total bad loans in the banking system.

• The RBI’s Internal Advisory Committee (IAC) — which held its first meeting on Tuesday — undertook a detailed review of the situation.

• Banks would get six months to finalise a viable resolution plan for all the other stressed accounts, failing which the lenders would be required to file for insolvency proceedings.

India ratified two core conventions of ILO on child labour​

• India ratified two core conventions of International Labour Organisation on child labour — a global commitment to end the worst form of child labour and to ensure minimum basic education to children.

• “It is a historic moment for India as we are going to take another giant step to affirm our commitment for a child labour-free India by ratifying the two core conventions of ILO Conventions,“ said Labour Minister.

Govt has started a Periodic Labour Force Survey

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has started a Periodic Labour Force Survey, which will provide quarterly labour and employment data for urban India and annual data for rural India.

• Introduced in April 2017, this survey will supersede the earlier system where such data was available only every five years, the Minister for Statistics and Programme Implementation.

• The Statistics Ministry is also preparing to revise the base year of national accounts to 2017-18 from 2011-12, following the completion of the household consumer expenditure survey and the labour force survey at the end of 2018.

• The Periodic Labour Force Survey will also incorporate a Computer Assisted Personal Interviewing (CAPI) method, with field operators using tablets to enter the data. This would generate more accurate and timely information, Mr. Gowda said.

• The Ministry of Statistics is also developing a fact sheet on the Indian economy, incorporating inputs from all important ministries on 100 indicators.

• It is also considering an Annual Survey of Services, along the lines of the Annual Survey of Industries already being carried out, Mr. Gowda said.

Click Here for Daily Current Affairs Archive

Click Here for Study Material for SSC CGL Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for SSC CGL Exam

SSC CGL (Tier - 1, 1st shift) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2011

Subject: Numerical Aptitude

1.

(a) 1439/9
(b) 160
(c) 1443/9
(d) 169

2. The sum of two numbers is 24 and their product is 143. The sum of their square is

(a) 296
(b) 295
(c) 290
(d) 228

3. Which one of the following will completely divide 5⁷¹ + 5⁷² + 5 ⁷³ ?

(a) 150
(b) 160
(c) 155
(d) 30

4. L.C.M. of two numbers is 120 and their H.C.F. is 10. Which of the following can be the sum of those two numbers?

(a) 140
(b) 80
(c) 60
(d) 70

5. When ‘n’ is divided by 5 the remainder is 2. What is the remainder when n2 is divided by 5?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4

6. A student was asked to divide a number by 6 and add 12 to the quotient. He, however, first added 12 to the number and then divided it by 6, getting 112 as the answer. The correct answer should have been

(a) 124
(b) 122
(c) 118
(d) 114

7. Four runners started running simultaneously from a point on a circular track. They took 200 seconds, 300 seconds, 360 seconds and 450 seconds to complete the round. After how much time to they meet at the starting point for the first time?

(a) 1800 seconds
(b) 3600 seconds
(c) 2400 seconds
(d) 4800 seconds

8. ‘x’ number of men can finish a piece of work is 30 days. If there were 6 men more, the work culd be finished in 10 days less. The original number of men is

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15

9. A work can be completed by P and Q in 12 days, Q and R in 15 days, R and P in 20 days. In how many days P alone can finish the work?

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 60

10. A is thrice as good a workman as B and is, therefore, able to finish a piece of work in 60 days less than B. The time (in days) in which they can do it working together is

(a) 22
(b) 45/2
(c) 23
(d) 93/4

11. A copper wire is bent in the form of square with an area of 121 cm ². If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, the radius (in cm) of the circle is

(a) 7
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 14

12. The areas of three consecutive faces of a cuboid are 12 cm ², 20cm ² and 15 cm ², then the volume (in cm ³) of the cuboid is

(a) 3600
(b) 100
(c) 80
(d) 60

13. Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km/h through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangle tank which is 50 m long, 44 m wide. The time taken, in hours, for the rise in the level of water in the tank to be 7 cm is

(a) 2
(b) 3/2
(c) 3
(d) 5/2

14. The wheel of a motor car makes 1000 revolution in moving 440 m. The diameter (in meter) of the wheel is

(a) 0.44
(b) 0.14
(c) 0.24
(d) 0.34

15. The sides of a triangle are in the ration 2 : 3 : 4. The perimeter of the triangle is 18 cm. The area (in cm ²) of the triangle is

(a) 9
(b) 36
(c)
(d)

16. Marked price of an article is Rs. 275. Shopkeeper allows a discount of 5% and he gets a profit of 4.5%. The actual cost of the article is

(a) 250
(b) 225
(c) 215
(d) 210

17. The difference between a discount of 40% on Rs. 500 and two successive discounts of 36%, 4% on the same amount is

(a) Rs. 0
(b) Rs. 2
(c) Rs. 1.93
(d) Rs. 7.20

18. If x : y = 4 : 5, then
(3x + y) : (5x + 3y) =

(a) 3 : 5
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 17 : 35
(d) 35 : 17

19. The ratio of the quantities on an acid and water in a mixture is 1 : 3. If 5 liters of acid is further added to the mixture, the new ratio becomes 1 : 2. The quantity of new mixture in litres is

(a) 32
(b) 40
(c) 42
(d) 45

20. The ratio between two numbers is 2 : 3. If each number is increased by 4, the ratio between them becomes 5 : 7. The difference between the numbers is

(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2

21. Monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their expenses bear the ratio 3 : 2. Each of them saves Rs. 6,000 at the end of the month, then the monthly income of A is

(a) Rs. 12,000
(b) Rs. 24,000
(c) Rs. 30,000
(d) Rs. 60,000

22. The average of three consecutive odd numbers is 12 more than one third of the first of these numbers. What is the last of the three numbers?

(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 19
(d) Data inadequate

23. The average of 18 observations is recorded as 124. Later it was found that two observations with values 64 and 28 were entered wrongly as 46 and 82. Find the correct average of the 18 observations.

(a) 895/8
(b) 122
(c) 123
(d)

24. If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles, find gain%

(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 18
(d) 21

25. The cost price of an article is 64% of the marked price. The gain percentage after allowing a discount of 12% on the market price is

(a) 37.5%
(b) 48%
(c) 50.5%
(d) 52%

26. A man purchased some eggs at 3 for Rs. 5 and sold them at 5 for Rs. 12. Thus he gained Rs. 143 in all. The number of eggs he bought is

(a) 210
(b) 200
(c) 195
(d) 190

27. X cells two articles for Rs. 4,000 each with no loss and no gain in the interaction. If one was sold at a gain of 25% the other is sold at a loss of

(a) 25%
(b) %
(c) 50 / 3%
(d) 20%

28. 20% loss on selling price is what per cent loss on the cost price?

(a) 25%
(b) 15%
(c)50 / 3 %
(d) 49 / 3%

29. If 90% of A = 30% of B and B = x% of A, then the value of x is

(a) 800
(b) 300
(c) 700
(d) 400

30. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables me to purchase 5 kg more for Rs. 600. Find the price of sugar per kg before reduction of price.

(a) Rs. 24
(b) Rs. 30
(c) Rs. 32
(d) Rs. 36

31. The price of a commodity rises from Rs. 6 per kg to Rs. 7.50 per kg. If the expenditure cannot increase, the percentage of reduction in consumption is

(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 30

32. First and second numbers are less than a third number by 30% and 37% respectively. The second number is less than the first by

(a) 7%
(b) 4%
(c) 3%
(d) 10%

33. Walking at 6/7th of this usual speed a man is 25 minutes too late. His usual time to cover this distance is

(a) 2 hours 30 minutes
(b) 2 hours 15 minutes
(c) 2 hours 25 minutes
(d) 2 hours 10 minutes

34. Walking at 5 km/hr a student reaches his school from his house 15 minutes early and walking at 3 km/hr he is late by 9 minutes. What is the distance between his school and his house?

(a) 5 km
(b) 8 km
(c) 3 km
(d) 2 km

35. A sum of Rs. 12,000 deposited at compound interest becomes double after 5 years. After 20 years, it will become

(a) Rs. 48,000
(b) Rs. 96,000
(c) Rs. 1,90,000
(d) Rs. 1,92,000

36. Simple interest on a certain sum for 6 years is 9/25of the sum. The rate of interest is

(a) 6%
(b) 13/2%
(c) 8%
(d) 17/2%

37. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest for the amount Rs. 5,000 in 2 years is Rs.32. The rate of interest is

(a) 5%
(b) 8%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%

38. The least number, which is to be added to the greatest number of 4 digits so that the sum may be divisible by 345, is

(a) 50
(b) 6
(c) 60
(d) 5

39.

40. If 17200 is divided by 18, the remainder is

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 16
(d) 17

41.

42. The unit digit in the sum of (124) ³⁷² + (124)³⁷³ is

(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 20
(d) 0

43.

44. If a * b = ab, then the value of 5 * 3 is

(a) 125
(b) 243
(c) 53
(d) 15

45.

46. If = 0.3 × 0.3 × value of is

(a) 0.009
(b) 0.03
(c) 0.09
(d) 0.08

Directions (47-50): The following graph shows the production of cotton bales of 100 kg each in lakhs by different states A, B, C, D and E over the years. Study the graph and answer the following Questions.

47. The production of State C in 2003-2004 is how many times its production in 2005-2006?

(a) 2.5
(b) 1.85
(c) 1.5
(d) 0.4

48. In which State(s) is there a steady increase in the production of cotton during the given period?

(a) A and B
(b) B and D
(c) A and C
(d) D and E

49. How many kg of cotton was produced by State C during the given period?

(a) 32,00,00,000 kg
(b) 42,50,00,000 kg
(c) 33,00,00,000 kg
(d) 35,00,00,000 kg

50. The number of States for which the production of cotton in 2005-2006 is less than or equal to the preceding year is

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) There is no such States

Answer Key

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

SSC CGL (Tier - 1, 1st shift) Previous Year Solved Paper - 2011

Subject: General Awareness

1. Correction of Shivaji took place in

(a) 1627 A.D.
(b) 1674 A.D.
(c) 1680 A.D.
(d) 1670 A.D.

2. The System of Dyarchy was introduced in India in

(a) 1909
(b) 1935
(c) 1919
(d) 1945

3. The Editor of ‘Young India’ and ‘Harijan’ was

(a) Nehru
(b) Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Subash Chandra Bose

4. Who of the following attended all the Three Round Table Conferences?

(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) M.M. Malavia
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Gandhiji

5. Which is the largest living bird on Earth?

(a) Emu
(b) Ostrich
(c) Albatross
(d) Siberian Crane

6. Rihand Dam Project provides irrigation to

(a) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(b) Orissa and West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(d) Kerala and Karnataka

7. The Headquarters of MCF (Master Control Facility) – the nerve centre of all entire space craft operations-in India is at

(a) Hyderabad – Andhra Pradesh
(b) Thumba – Kerala
(c) Sriharikota – Andhra Pradesh
(d) Hassan – Karnataka

8. Which is the longest irrigation canal in India?

(a) Sirhind Canal
(b) Yamuna Canal
(c) Indira Gandhi Canal
(d) East Kosi Canal

9. Which one of the following minerals is found in Monazite sand?

(a) Potassium
(b) Uranium
(c) Thorium
(d) Sodium

10. In coriander, the useful parts are

(a) roots & leaves
(b) leaves & flower
(c) leaves & dried fruits
(d) flowers & dried fruits

11. Which plant is called ‘Herbal Indian Doctor’?

(a) Amla
(b) Mango
(c) Neem
(d) Tulsi

12. The pH of human blood is

(a) 7.2
(b) 7.8
(c) 6.6
(d) 7.4

13. Which amongst the following is largest endocrine gland in the body?

(a) Thyroid
(b) Parathyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary

14. Which amongst the following is the largest mammal?

(a) Elephant
(b) Whale
(c) Dinosaur
(d) Rhinoceros

15. Which part becomes modified as the tusk of elephant?

(a) Canine
(b) premolar
(c) Second incisor
(d) Molar

16. Optical fibres are based on the phenomenon of

(a) Interference
(b) Dispersion
(c) Diffraction
(d) Total Internal Reflection

17. Now-a-days yellow lamps are frequently used as street lights. Which of the following gases is used in these lamps?

(a) Sodium
(b) Neon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Nitrogen

18. ‘Mirage’ is an example of

(a) refraction of light only
(b) total internal, reflection of light only
(c) refraction and total internal reflection of light
(d) dispersion of light only

19. The phenomenon of light associated with the appearance of blue colour of the sky is

(a) Interference
(b) Reflection
(c) Refraction
(d) Scattering

20. In which of the following areas, a spreadsheet software is more useful?

(a) Psychology
(b) Publishing
(c) Statistics
(d) Message sending

21. A Group Ware is a

(a) Hardware
(b) Network
(c) Software
(d) Firmware

22. Lens is made up of

(a) Pyrex glass
(b) Flint glass
(c) Ordinary glass
(d) Cobalt glass

23. The element which is used for vulcanizing rubber

(a) Sulphur
(b) Bromine
(c) Silicon
(d) Phosphorus

24. Which of the following is responsible for the extra strength of pyrex glass?

(a) Potassium Carbonate
(b) Lead Oxide
(c) Borax
(d) Ferric Oxide

25. The noble gas used for the treatment of cancer is

(a) Helium
(b) Argon
(c) Krypton
(d) Radon

26. Vasundhara Summit was held in

(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Brazil
(d) Australia

27. ‘Loktak’ is a

(a) Valley
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) Mountain Range

28. Which city receives the highest cosmic radiation amongst the following?

(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi

29. The common tree species in Nilgiri hills is

(a) Sal
(b) Pine
(c) Eucalyptus
(d) Teak

30. Which of the following statements on Railways Budget for 2011-12 is correct?

(a) There would be 10% increase in fares for long distance train travel both by air conditioned and non-air-conditioned classes.
(b) There would be 15% increase in freight rates on all goods other than food grains.
(c) There would be 15% increase in passenger fares for all classes for long distance travel as well as in freights.
(d) There would be no increase in fares for both suburban and long distance train travel

31. The nuclear reactors which were damaged heavily die to a strong Earthquake-cum-Tsunami that his Japan on March 11, 2011 causing radiation leakage were at

(a) Fukushima
(b) Kyoto
(c) Tokyo
(d) None of the above

32. The maximum limit on poll expenditure for Assembly Constituencies has been raised in February, 2011 to

(a) 16 lakhs
(b) 18 lakhs
(c) 20 lakhs
(d) 25 lakhs

33. First Indian Prime Minister to visit Siachen has been

(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Inder Kumar Gujaral
(c) Man Mohan Singh
(d) None of the above

34. Which of the following books has been written by Kishwar Desai?

(a) The Red Devil
(b) Witness the Night
(c) Tonight This Savage Rite
(d) Earth and Ashes

35. Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with Karnataka?

(a) Yakshagana
(b) Veedhi
(c) Jatra
(d) Jhora

36. Who is the following received Sangeet Natak Akademi’s Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva puraskar for 2009 in theatre?

(a) Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(b) Ragni Chander Sarkar
(c) Abanti Chakravoty & Sukracharya Rabha
(d) K. Nellai Manikandan

37. Which of the following countries did not win any of the “FIFA World Cup” in 2002, 2006 & 2010?

(a) Brazil
(b) Argentina
(c) Spain
(d) South Africa

38. Who invented vaccination for ‘Small Pox’?

(a) Sir Freedrick Grant Banting
(b) Sir Alexander Fleming
(c) Edward Jenner
(d) Louis Pasteur

39. Who was the first Indian to become member of British Parliament?

(a) Bankim Chander Chatterjee
(b) W.C. Bannerjee,
(c) Dadabhai Naroji
(d) None of the above

40. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called

(a) Foreign Direct Investment
(b) Portfolio Investment
(c) NRI Investment
(d) Foreign Indirect Investment

41. BT seed is associated with

(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Cotton
(d) Oil seeds

42. The Headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in

(a) Geneva
(b) Paris
(c) Vienna
(d) Washington

43. In the Budget Estimates for 2011-12, and allocation of Rs. 400 crore has been made to bring in a green revolution in the East in the rice-based cropping system of

(a) Assam & West Bengal only
(b) Assam, West Bengal, Orissa & Jharkhand only
(c) Assam, West-Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Jharkhand only
(d) Assam, West-Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh & Chhatisgarh

44. In the Budget for 2011-12 presented by the Finance Minister on 28-2-2011, the income-tax exemption limit for senior citizen (60 years to less than 80 years) has been increased to

(a) Rs. 2.50 lakh
(b) Rs. 2.60 lakh
(c) Rs. 2.80 lakh
(d) Rs. 3.00 lakh

45. If the Anglo-Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by the

(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Speaker
(d) President in consultation with the Parliament

46. For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of

(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 18 years

47. Who said, “A good citizen makes a good State and bad citizen makes a bad State.”?

(a) Plato
(b) Rousseau
(c) Aristotle
(d) Laski

48. A member of Parliament will lose his membership of Parliament if he is continuously absent from Sessions for

(a) 45 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 365 days

49. In India, the Residuary Powers are vested with

(a) Union Government
(b) State Government
(c) Both the Union Government and the State Government
(d) Local Government

50. Mention the place where Buddha attained enlightenment.

(a) Sarnath
(b) Bodh Gaya
(c) Kapilavastu
(d) Rajgriha

Answer Key

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Exam Solved Paper - 2011 "English Comprehension" (1st shift)

Subject: English Comprehension

Directions (1-5): In the following question, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of the part is you answer. If a sentence is free from errors, then you answer is (d) i.e., No error.

1. A senior doctor (1) / expressed concern (2) / about physicians recommended the vaccine. (3) / No error. (4)

2. We have discussing (1) / all the known mechanisms (2) / of physical growth, (3) / No error. (4)

3. Children enjoy listening to (1) / ghosts stories (2) / especially on Halloween night. (3) / No error. (4)

4. I (1) / have (2) / many works to do. (3) / No error. (4)

5. There are so many filths (1) / all around (2) / the place. (3) / No error. (4)

Directions (6–10): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.\

6. The building is not safe and must be _____ down.

(a) pull
(b) pulling
(c) pulled
(d) pulls

7. There is something wonderful ___ him.

(a) of
(b) about
(c) for
(d) inside

8. The song in the play cannot be deleted it is ____ to the story.

(a) intervened
(b) innate
(c) exacting
(d) integral

9. She remained a _____ all her life.

(a) spinster
(b) bachelor
(c) unmarried
(d) single

10. Do not stay in the grasslands after dark, as some animals become ____ when they see humans.

(a) provoked
(b) alerted
(c) aggressive
(d) threatened

Directions (11-15): In the following, questions out of the four alternatives, choose one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

11. LUCIDITY

(a) Fluidity
(b) Politeness
(c) Clarity
(d) Fluency

12. INDICT

(a) Implicate
(b) Elude
(c) Appreciate
(d) Judge

13. DELUGE

(a) Confusion
(b) Deception
(c) Flood
(d) Weapon

14. PREPONDERANCE

(A) Pre-eminence
(B) Dominance
(C) Domineering
(D) Preoccupation

Directions (16-20): In the following question no. 66 to 70, out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

16. INVINCIBLE

(a) Small
(b) Invisible
(c) Vulnerable
(d) Reachable

17. INOFFENSIVE

(a) Sensitive
(b) Organic
(c) Sensible
(d) Rude

18. DIVULGE

(a) Conceal
(b) Disguise
(c) Oppress
(d) Reveal

19. DISCORD

(a) Harmony
(b) Serenity
(c) Acceptance
(d) Placidity

20. MAMMOTH

(a) Quiet
(b) Significant
(c) Huge (d) Small

Directions (21-25): In the following four alternatives are given for the meaning of the given Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

21. To take to heart

(a) to be encouraged
(b) to grieve over
(c) to like
(d) to hate

22. Yeoman’s service

(a) medical help
(b) excellent work
(c) social work
(d) hard work

23. To face the music

(a) to enjoy a musical recital
(b) to bear the consequences
(c) to live in a pleasant atmosphere
(d) to have a difficult time

24. To put up with

(a) to accommodate
(b) to adjust
(c) to understand
(d) to tolerate

25. To call it a day

(a) to conclude proceedings
(b) to initiate proceedings
(c) to work through the day
(d) None of the above

Directions (26-30): In the following questions, a sentence or bold part thereof is given which may need improvement. Alternative are given at (A), (B) and (C) below, which may be a better option. In case, no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

26. The man whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler.

(a) The man whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved as swindler.
(b) The man who I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler.
(c) The man to whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler,
(d) No improvement

27. No sooner had the dividend been declared, the notices were sent out.

(a) The company had hardly declared the dividend till the notices were sent for mailing.
(b) They had no sooner declared to dividend then the notices were sent out.
(c) Hardly had the dividend been declared than the notices were sent out.
(d) No improvement.

28. Riding upon his horse, the tiger jumped at him.

(a) Riding upon the tiger, the horse jumped at him.
(b) The tiger jumped at him while he was riding upon his horse
(c) The tiger rode at him while he was jumping upon his horse.
(d) No improvement

29. I in black and white must have your terms down.

(a) I must have in black in white your terms down.
(b) I must have your terms in black and white down.
(c) I must have your terms down in black and white.
(d) No improvement.

30. When we are came out of the restaurant it was half past eleven.

(a) When we had come out of the restaurant
(b) After we came out of the restaurant
(c) When we have come out of the restaurant
(d) No improvement

Directions (31-35): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

31. Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence

(a) Statesmanship
(b) Diplomacy
(c) Hierarchy
(d) Protocol

32. To renounce a high position of authority or control

(a) Abduct
(b) Abandon
(c) Abort
(d) Abdicate

33. Not to be moved by entreaty

(a) Rigorous
(b) Negligent
(c) Inexorable
(d) Despotic

34. An object or portion serving as a sample

(a) Specification
(b) Spectre
(c) Spectacle
(d) Specimen

35. The practice of submitting a proposal to popular vote

(a) Election
(b) Reference
(c) Popularity
(d) Referendum

Directions (36-40): In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

36.

(a) mandatary
(b) circulatory
(c) temporary
(d) regulatory

37.

(a) convinience
(b) initative
(c) concessional
(d) exaggerate

38.

(a) diologue
(b) giraffe
(c) scissors
(d) humourous

39.

(a) assiduous
(b) nefarious
(c) macabre
(d) loquacious

40.

(a) cortege
(b) damage
(c) milege
(d) plumege

Directions (41-50): In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill the blanks with the help of the alternative given.

Passage
Science means knowledge, but not all knowledge is science. I know from my own eyesight that our dog Chippy lies papaya; I know from a book that Akbar was the (191) of Babar, and (192) in 1605; and I know (193) the ratio that India did not do well in the (194) Test matches. We can call these (195) of knowledge (196) but they are not science.
Science (197) with facts, but not with facts which have (198) to do with each other, like the facts about our dog, cricket and the Mughal ruler; those facts are not related (199), and so have nothing (200) with science. Science stars with observation.

41.

(a) grandson
(b) grandfather
(c) grand nephew
(d) son

42.

(a) gone
(b) died
(c) disappeared
(d) absented

43

(a) on
(b) in
(c) since
(d) from

44.

(a) old
(b) ordinary
(c) latest
(d) outdated

45.

(a) pieces
(b) peace
(c) whole
(d) block

46.

(a) lies
(b) charges
(c) facts
(d) blame

47.

(a) starts
(b) stops
(c) passes
(d) drives

48.

(a) no
(b) neither
(c) nor
(d) nothing

49.

(a) by that way
(b) in any way
(c) from the side
(d) in addition to

50.

(a) to lie
(b) to speak
(c) to sleep
(d) to do

Answer Key

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Previous Year Solved Exam Paper - 2011, "Reasoning" (2nd shift)

Subject: Reasoning

1. Find out the pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property.

(a) 16-18
(b) 56-63
(c) 96-108
(d) 86-99

2. In the following question, number of letters is skipped in between by a particular rule. Which of the following observes the rule?

(a) ACZXFG
(b) CFXURI
(c) CFIURX
(d) CXFUIR

3. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

(1) Sentence
(2) Word
(3) Chapter
(4) Phrase
(5) Paragraph

(a) 4,3,1,2,5
(b) 2,3,5,4,1
(c) 3,5,1,4,2
(d) 1,3,2,4,5

4. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary:

(1) Inhabit
(2) Ingenious
(3) Inherit
(4) Influence
(5) Infatuation

(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 5,4,1,2,3
(c) 4,5,2,1,3
(d) 5,4,2,1,3

5. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letters series shall complete it?
__ab__b__aba__ __ abab

(a) a bb aa
(b) bb aa b
(c) ab aa b
(d) a aa ba

Directions (6-9): In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose

6. 14, 19, 29, 49, 89, ___ ? ___

(a) 139
(b) 149
(c) 159
(d) 169

7. BMRG, DLTF, FKVE, HJXD, ___?___

(a) JIZC
(b) JZIB
(c) GIFB
(d) MOLC

8. 121, 144, 289, 324, 529, 576, __?__

(a) 961
(b) 841
(c) 900
(d) 729

9. 5, 21, 69, 213, 645, __?__

(a) 1670
(b) 1941
(c) 720
(d) 1320

10. Find out the questioned number. 6 : 5 : : 8 : ?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10

11. In a row of trees, a tree is 7th from left end and 14the from the right end. How many trees are there in the row?

(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 21

12. Shan is 55 years old, Sathian is 5 years junior to Shan and 6 years senior to Balan. The youngest brother of Balan is Devan and he is 7 years junior to him. So what is the age difference between Devan and Shah?

(a) 18 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 13 years
(d) 7 years

13. Vinod introduces Vishal as the son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Vinod related to Vishal?

(a) Cousin
(b) Brother
(c) Son
(d) Uncle

14. There are 80 families in a small extension area. 20 per cent of these families own a car each. 50 per cent these families own a car each. 50 per cent of the remaining families own a motor cycle each. How many families in that extension do not own any vehicle?

(a) 30
(b) 32
(c) 23
(d) 36

15. If John celebrated his victory day on Tuesday, 5th January 1965, when will he celebrate his next victory day on the same day?

(a) 5th January 1970
(b) 5th January 1971
(c) 5th January 1973
(d) 5th January 1974

16. Fiver girls M, N, O, P and Q are standing in a row. P is on the right of Q. N is on the left of Q, but is on the right of M. P is on the left of O. Who is standing on the extreme right?

(a) Q
(b) N
(c) O
(d) P

17. Sita is elder than Swapna. Lavanya is elder than Swapna but younger than Sita. Suvarna is younger than both Hari and Swapna, Swapna is elder than Hari. Who is the youngest?

(a) Sita
(b) Lavanya
(c) Suvarna
(d) Hari

18. After 9’O clock at what time between 9 p.m. and 10 p.m. will the hour and minute hands of a clock point in opposite direction?

(a) 15 minutes past 9
(b) 16 minutes past 9
(c) minutes past 9
(d) minutes past 9

19. One evening, Raja started to walk toward the Sun. after walking a while, he turned to his right and again to his right. After walking a while, he again turned right. In which direction is he facing?

(a) South
(b) East
(c) West
(d) North

20. Vivek and Ashok start from a fixed point. Vivek moves 3 km north and turns right and them covers 4 km. Ashok moves 5 km west and turns right and walks 3 km, Now he far are they apart?

(a) 10 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 8 km
(d) 6 km

21. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

MISFORTUNE

(a) FORT
(b) TURN
(c) SOFT
(d) ROAM

22. From the given alternative words, select he word which can be formed using the letters of the given word:

STRANGULATION

(a) TRIANGLE
(b) GARLAND
(c) ROASTING
(d) TRAUMA

23. If in a certain code, RAMAYANA is written as PYKYWYLY, then how MAHABHARATA can be written in that code?

(a) NBIBCIBSBUB
(b) LZGZAGZQZSZ
(c) CKJCDJCTCVC
(d) KYFYZFYPYRY

24. If MEKLF is coded as 91782 and LLLJK as 88867, then how can IGHED be coded?

(a) 97854
(b) 64521
(c) 54310
(d) 95632

25. Two statements are given below followed by four alternative inferences. Select the one which is most appropriate.

Statements:

(i) All radios sold in that shop are of high standard.
(ii) Some of Murphy radios are sold in that shop.

Inferences:

1. All radios of high standard are manufacture by Murphy company,
2. Some of the Murphy radios of high standard.
3. None of the Murphy radios is of high standard.
4. Some of the Murphy radios of high standard are sold in that shop.

(a) 1 and 2 inferences only
(b) 2 and 4 inferences only
(c) 1 and 3 inferences only
(d) 1 and 4 inferences only

Directions (26-27): In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses:

26.

(a) 58
(b) 51
(c) 65
(d) 64

27.

(a) 343
(b) 512
(c) 729
(d) 1000

28. The population of rats is increasing year after year in a village. Find out the missing population from the following information:

Years :     1990  1991  1992  1993  1994  1995
Population : 4       8      16      ?        44      64

(a) 22
(b) 32
(c) 28
(d) 34

29. If – stands for division, + for multiplication, ÷ for subtraction and × for addition, then which one of the following equations is correct?

(a) 19 + 5 – 4 × 2÷ 4 = 11
(b) 19 × 5 – 4 ÷ 2 + 4 = 16
(c) 19 ÷ 5 + 4 – 2 × 4 = 13
(d) 19 ÷ 5 + 4 + 2 ÷ 4 = 20

Directions (30-38): In each of the following questions, select the related letter / word /number from the given alternatives.

30. Country : President : : State : ?

(a) Chief Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Governor

SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Exam Solved Paper - 2011 "General Awareness" (1st shift)

Subject: General Awareness

1. In the budget for 2011-2012, the fiscal deficit (% of GDP) for 2011-2012 has been projected at

(a) 5.1
(b) 5.0
(c) 4.6
(d) 3.4

2. Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?

(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Rights to Freedom of Religion

3. Which is not the concern of the local government?

(a) Public Health
(b) Sanitation
(c) Law and order
(d) Public Utility Services

4. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from

(a) England
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) France

5. Who had proposed partyless democracy in India

(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) S.A. Dange

6. Disinvestment in Public Sector is called

(a) Liberalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Industrialisation
(d) Privatisation

7. ‘Darwin finches’ refers to a group of

(a) Fishes
(b) Lizards
(c) Birds
(d) Amphibians

8. An individual’s actual standard of living can be assessed by

(a) Gross National Income
(b) Net National Income
(c) Per Capita Income
(d) Disposable Personal Income

9. As announced by the Finance Minister in his Budget speech on 28th February 2011, with a view to assist States in modernising their stamp and registration administration, E-stamping is expected to be rolled out in all the districts of different States in a period of

(a) one year
(b) two year
(c) three year
(d) five year

10. Which Sikh Guru called himself the ‘Sachcha Badshah’?

(a) Guru Gobind Singh
(b) Guru Hargoving
(c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
(d) Guru Arjun Dev

11. The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in

(a) 1928
(b) 1930
(c) 1931
(d) 1922

12. What is the maximum strength prescribed for State Legislative Assemblies?

(a) 350
(b) 600
(c) 500
(d) 750

13. Fa-hien visited India during the region of

(a) Chandragupta II
(b) Samundragupta
(c) Ramagupta
(d) Kumaragupta

14. At which place in Bengal was the East India Company given permission to trade and build a factory by the Mughals in 1651?

(a) Calcutta
(b) Cassim Bazar
(c) Singur
(d) Burdwan

15. Diu is an island off

(a) Daman
(b) Goa
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra

16. Which from the following is a land-locked sea?

(a) Red Sea
(b) Timor Sea
(c) North Sea
(d) Aral Sea

17. Shivasamudram Falls is found in the course of river

(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Cauvery
(d) Mahanandi

18. Who gave the slogan “Inquilab Zindabad”?

(a) Chandrashekhar Azad
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Bhagat Singh
(d) Iqbal

19. The position of India Railways network in the world is

(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth

20. The oldest international airline is

(a) Dutch. KLM
(b) Air Canada
(c) Qantas Airways
(d) Air Sahara

21. Which of the following can be used to absorb neutrons to control the chain reaction during nuclear fission?

(a) Boron
(b) Heavy water
(c) Uranium
(d) Plutonium

22. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of

(a) controlled fission reaction
(b) uncontrolled fission reaction
(c) controlled fusion reaction
(d) uncontrolled fusion reaction

23. Troposphere is the hottest part of the atmosphere because

(a) it is closest to the Sun
(b) there are charged particles in it
(c) it is heated by the Earth’s surface
(d) heat is generated in it

24. The outermost layer of the Sun is called

(a) Chromosphere
(b) Photosphere
(c) Corona
(d) Lithosphere

25. Where was India’s computer installed?

(a) Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
(b) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
(c) Indian Iron & Steel Co. Ltd., Burnpur
(d) Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta

26. The dried flower buds are used as a spice in

(a) Cardamom
(b) Cinnamon
(c) Cloves
(d) Saffron

27. The tissue in man where no cell division occurs after birth is

(a) skeletal
(b) nerves
(c) connective
(d) germinal

28. DNA fingerprinting is used to identify the

(a) Parents
(b) Rapist
(c) Thieves
(d) All the above

29. The normal cholesterol level in human blood is

(a) 80 – 120 mg%
(b) 120 – 140 mg%
(c) 140 – 180 mg%
(d) 180 – 200 mg%

30. Which of the following are warm-blooded animals?

(a) Whales
(b) Whale Sharks
(c) Alytes
(d) Draco

31. Syrinx is the voice box in

(a) Amphibians
(b) Reptiles
(c) Birds
(d) Mammals

32. The largest ecosystem of the Earth is

(a) Biome
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Biosphere

33. In a food chain, the solar energy utilized by plants is only

(a) 10 per cent
(b) 1 per cent
(c) 0.1 per cent
(d) 0.01 per cent

34. Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinning of

(a) O3 layer
(b) O2 layer
(c) SO2 layer
(d) CO2 layer

35. OTEC stand for

(a) Ocean Thermal Energy Conservation
(b) Oil and Thermal Energy Conservation
(c) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
(d) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

36. As per Railway Budget for 2011-2012, the senior citizen concession for men has been increased from

(a) 25 % to 30%
(b) 30 % to 40%
(c) 40 % to 50%
(d) 30 % to 50%

37. The monster earthquake-cum-tsunami which his Japan on March, 11, 2011 has moved the country’s main island, Honshu, by about

(a) two feet
(b) three feet
(c) five feet
(d) eight feet

38. What is the commonly used unit for measuring the speed of data transmission?

(a) Mega Hertz
(b) Character per second
(c) Bits per second
(d) Nano seconds

39. Which type of reaction produces the most harmful radiation?

(a) Fusion reaction
(b) Fission reaction
(c) Chemical reaction
(d) Photo-Chemical reaction

40. Which type of glass is used for making glass reinforced plastic?

(a) Pyrex glass
(b) Flint glass
(c) Quartz glass
(d) Fibre glass

41. Which of the following metals causes Itai-Itai disease?

(a) Cadmium
(b) Chromium
(c) Cobalt
(d) Copper

42. Glycol is added to aviation gasoline because it

(a) reduces evaporation of petrol
(b) increases efficiency of petrol
(c) prevents freezing of petrol
(d) reduces consumption of petrol

43. Who invented penicillin?

(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Dresser
(d) Edward Jenner

44. 2018 FIFA World Cup would be held in

(a) Russia
(b) Qatar
(c) France
(d) Netherlands

45. Who of the following was not the recipient of Nobel Prize in Economics 2010?

(a) Peter A. Diamond
(b) Christopher Pissarides
(c) Lui Xiaobo
(d) Dale Mortensen

46. Which troubled model was recalled recently by the Indian automobile giant Maruti Suzuki for replacement of faulty fuel pump gasket?

(a) Maruti 800
(b) Maruti A-Star
(c) Wagon R
(d) Baleno

47. As a part of Human Resource Development Ministry’s ‘brain gain’ policy to attract global talent, 14 world class universities to attract global talents are proposed to be set up in various states. Name the state from the following where no university of the aforesaid type is proposed to be located.

(a) Punjab
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttaranchal

48. Who discovered South Pole?

(a) Robert Peary
(b) Amundsen
(c) John Cabot
(d) Tasman

49. Which of the following folk dances is associated with Rajasthan?

(a) Rauf
(b) Jhora
(c) Veedhi
(d) Suisini

50. Which of the following books is authored by V.S. Naipalu?

(a) The Rediscovery of India
(b) A House for Mr. Biswas
(c) Witness the Night
(d) Tender Hooks

Answer Key

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page

SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Exam Solved Paper - 2011 "Numerical Aptitude" (1st shift)

Subject: Numerical Aptitude

 1.

(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 123
(d) 125

 2.

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) (136)^1/3

3. I multiplied a natural number by 18 and another by 21 and added the products. Which one of the following could be the sum?

(a) 2007
(b) 2008
(c) 2006
(d) 2002

4. The product of two numbers is 45 and their difference is 4. The sum of squares of the two numbers is

(a) 135
(b) 240
(c) 73
(d) 106

5.

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10

6.

7. When 2 ³¹ is divided by 5 the remainder is

(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

8.

(a) 21/13
(b) 17/3
(c) 34/21
(d) 8/5

9. The unit digit in the product (122) ¹⁷³ is

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

10.

11. If a * b = 2a + 3b – ab, then the value of (3 * 5 + 5 * 3) is

(a) 10
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2

12. Simplify:

(a) 0.9306
(b) 1.0009
(c) 1.0050
(d) 15

13.

(a) 364.5
(b) 693.5
(c) 346.5
(d) 639.5

14. A child reshapes a cone made up of clay of height 24 and radius 6cm into a sphere. The radius (in cm) of eh sphere is

(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 48

15. Water flows into a tank which is 200m long and 150m wide, through a pipe of cross-section 0.3m × 0.2m at 20 km/hour. Then the time (in hour) for the water level in the tank to reach 8cm is

(a) 50
(b) 120
(c) 150
(d) 200

16. The product of two numbers is 2028 and their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs is

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

17. Two equal vessels are filled with the mixture of water and milk in the ratio of 3:4 and 5:3 respectively. If the mixtures are poured into a third vessel, the ratio of water and milk in the third vessel will be

(a) 15 : 12
(b) 53 : 59
(c) 20 : 9
(d) 59 : 53

18. I am three times as old as my son. 15 years hence, I will by twice as old as my son. The sum of our ages is

(a) 48 years
(b) 60 years
(c) 64 years
(d) 72 years

19. Three bells ring simultaneously at 11 a.m. They ring at regular intervals of 20 minutes, 30 minutes, 40 minutes respectively. The time when all the three ring together next is

(a) 2 p.m.
(b) 1 p.m.
(c) 1.15 p.m.
(d) 1.30 p.m.

20. A and B together can do a works in 12 days. B and C together do it in 15 days. If A’s efficiency is twice that of C, then the days required for B alone to finish the work is

(a) 60
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) 15

21. A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C can do the same work in 15 days, C and A can do the same time work in 20 days. The time taken by A, B and C to do the same work is

(a) 5 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 20 days

22. A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 20 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in

(a) 17/3days
(b) 20/3days
(c) 6 days
(d) 7 days

23. The ratio of the volumes of water and glycerine in 240cc of a mixture is 1 : 3. The quantity of water (in cc) that should be added to the mixture so that the new ratio of the volume of water and glycerine becomes 2:3 is

(a) 55
(b) 60
(c) 62.5
(d) 64

24. At present, the ratio of the ages of Maya and Chhaya is 6:5 and fifteen years from now, the ratio will get changed to 9:8. Maya’s present age is

(a) 21 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 40 years

25. The ratio of the income to the expenditure of a family is 10:7. If the family’s expenses are Rs. 10,500, then savings of the family is

(a) Rs. 4,500
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 4,000
(d) Rs. 5,000

26. The average mathematics marks of two Sections A and B of Class IX in the annual examination is 74. The average marks of Section A is 77.5 and that of Section B is 70. The ratio of the number of students of Section A and B

(a) 7 : 8
(b) 7 : 5
(c) 8 : 7
(d) 8 : 5

27. The average weight of a group of 20 boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and it was later discovered that one weight was misread as 78kg instead of 87 kg. The correct average weight is

(a) 88.95 kg
(b) 89.25 kg
(c) 89.55 kg
(d) 86.85 Kg

28. The diameter of a wheel is 98 cm. The number of revolutions in which it will have to cover a distance of 1540 m is

(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 700
(d) 800

129. In an equilateral triangle ABC of side 10cm, the side BC is trisected at D. Then the length (in cm) of AD is

30. The cost price of an article is Rs. 800. After allowing a discount of 10%, a gain of 12.5% was made. Then the marked price of the article is

(a) Rs. 1,000
(b) Rs. 1,100
(c) Rs. 1,200
(d) Rs. 1,300

31. A man bought an article listed at Rs. 500 with a discount of 20% offered on the list price. What additional discount must be offered to man to bring the net price to Rs. 1,104?

(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) 15%

32.

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 9

33. The floor of a room is of size 4m × 3m and its height is 3m. The walls and ceiling of the room require painting. The area to be painted is

(a) 66 m ²
(b) 54 m ²
(c) 43 m ²
(d) 33 m ²

34. When the price of an article was reduced by 20% its sale increased by 80%. What was the net effect on the sale?

(a) 44% increase
(b) 44% decrease
(c) 66% increase
(d) 66% decrease

35. The price of sugar goes up by 20%. If a housewife wants the expenses on sugar to remain the same, she should reduce the consumption by

(a) 76/5%
(b) 41/3%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

36. In a factory 60% of the workers are above 30 years and of these 75% are males and the rest are females. If there are 1350 male workers above 30 years, the total number of workers in the factory

(a) 3000
(b) 2000
(c) 1800
(d) 1500

37.

38. The selling price of 10 oranges is the cost price of 13 oranges. Then the profit percentage is

(a) 30%
(b) 10%
(c) 13%
(d) 3%

39. The marked price of a ratio is Rs. 480. The shopkeeper allows a discount at 10% and gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, his gain percent would be

(a) 18%
(b) 18.5%
(c) 20.5%
(d) 20%

40. A man sold 20 apples for Rs. 1000 and gained 20%. How many apples did he buy for Rs. 100?

(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 24
(d) 25

41. A rectangular sheet of metal is 40 cm by 15 cm. Equal squares of side 4 cm are cut off at the corners and the remainder is folded up to form an open rectangular box. The volume of the box is

(a) 896 cm ³
(b) 986 cm ³
(c) 600 cm ³
(d) 916 cm ³

42.

43. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1/9of the principle and the number of years is equal to rate per cent annum. The rate per annum is

(a) 3%
(b) 1/3%
(c) 10/3%
(d) 3/10%

44. The difference between simple interest and compound interest of a certain sum of money at 20% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 48. Then the sum is

(a) Rs. 1,000
(b) Rs. 1,200
(c) Rs. 1,500
(d) Rs. 2,000

45. Shri X goes to his office by scooter at a speed of 30 km/h and reaches 6 minutes earlier. If he goes at a speed of 24 km/h, he reaches 5 minutes late. The distance of his office is

(a) 20 km
(b) 21 km
(c) 22 km
(d) 24 km

46. A sum of money becomes eight times in 3 years, if the rate is compounded annually. In how much time will the same amount at the same compound rate become sixteen times?

(a) 6 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 8 years
(d) 5 years

Directions (47-50): The pie chart given below show the spending of a family on various heads during a month. Study the graph and answer the questions 147 to 150.

47. If the total income of the family is Rs. 25,000, then the amount spent on Rent and Food together is

(a) Rs. 17,250
(b) Rs. 14,750
(c) Rs. 11,250
(d) Rs. 8,500

48. What is the ratio of the expenses of Education to the expenses on Food?

(a) 1 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 5 : 3

49. Expenditure on Rent is what percent of expenditure of Fuel?

(a) 135%
(b) 156%
(c) 167%
(d) 172%

50. Which three expenditures together have a central angle of 108o?

(a) Fuel, Clothing and Others
(b) Fuel, Education and Others
(c) Clothing, Rend and Others
(d) Education, Rent and Others

Answer Key

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

Click Here to Join SSC CGL (Tier -1) Online Crash Course

Click Here to Buy SSC CGL (Tier -1) Stud y Kit in Print Copy

<< Go Back to Main Page