SSC English By MB Publications

About Book :

Competitive examinations in India particularly for the government jobs throw surprise to the students year after year. While examinations for Banking jobs are best known for their novelty in the types of questions, SSC examinations are marked by Hovering between the unknown and the traditional. This year examinations saw a return to the ‘known’ save a few papers of CPO (Pt). in this situation, students are well-advised to go the whole hog with previously asked one word substitutions and idioms/phrases. With Synonyms and Antonyms, they are advised to be consistent (then too sticking around the previous Year’s questions) as the range is just impossible to fathom. For the rest, regular practice of the previous questions is the most reliable way forward. Ssc aspirants are expected to have a practice only of previous questions and evade models papers, they being wide of the marked by a huge margin.

BOOK DETAILS

• Publisher : M.B. Books Pvt. Ltd.; 2020th edition (1 January 2020); M.B. Books Pvt. Ltd.
• Language : English
• Price : 265/-
• Paperback : 764 pages
• ISBN-10 : 8193807235
• ISBN-13 : 978-8193807231

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Paramount English for General Competitive Exams

About Book :

This is an age of cut-throat competition and in order to win this race, you have to make sure that your preparation level is a cut above the rest. Considering the sheer magnitude of the aspirants who apply for government jobs, one has to make sure that one takes guidance from the best of the materials available.

We have always strived to provide you with the best study materials to make your dream of a government job a reality. This book Plinth to paramount volume-l is a boon for students preparing for SSS CGL, CPO, CHSL (10+2), MTS, CDS, NDA, Banking, CAT, XAT, MBA, Schools & Colleges, Campus Placement & Other Examination. This English book will help in taking your preparation level up by a notch. With detailed explanations, we have made sure that this book is easily comprehensible for students of all levels.

To make sure you get a perfect companion for your preparation, we have put in much effort to make sure that this book is completely error-free. Regular revision with this book as a guide will surely help you gain the edge you need, the winning edge.

I earnestly thank the Paramount Authors who worked tirelessly to ensure the-quality of the book, and also helped us detect all the typographical and other errors that might have crept in, if not for their keen overview.
Striving to serve the student community and to impart quality education.

BOOK DETAILS

• Publisher : Paramount Coaching Centre Private Limited (1 January 2019)
• Price : 227/-
• Language : English
• ISBN-10 : 8193305361
• ISBN-13 : 978-8193305362

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-1

(General Awareness)

(General Awareness)

Q.1    A substantial increase in capital expenditure or revenue deficit leads to ______.    
1. Fiscal Deficit
2. Revenue Deficit
3. Primary Deficit
4. Budgetary Deficit

Correct Answer : Fiscal Deficit

Q.2    Who was the last ruler of the Vaghela Dynasty of Gujarat after whose defeat the kingdom was passed to Alauddin Khilji?    
1. Arjuna Deva
2. Karandev
3. Rama
4. Saranga Deva

Correct Answer : Karandev

Q.3    What is the dominant chemical present in detergent powder?    
1. Hydrochloric acid
2. Sodium carbonate
3. Sodium alkyl sulphate
4. Calcium carbonate

Correct Answer : Sodium carbonate

Q.4    What was India's rank among 156 countries in the Global Happiness Index 2019?    
1. 137th
2. 124th
3. 132nd
4. 140th

Correct Answer : 140th

Q.5    What effect will a decrease in demand and an increase in supply have on equilibrium price?    
1. Equilibrium price will fall
2. Sometimes price will rise and sometimes it will fall
3. Equilibrium price will be constant
4. Equilibrium price will rise

Correct Answer : Equilibrium price will fall

Q.6    Which of the following is the highest     mountain peak in Maharashtra?    
1. Anjaneri
2. Salher
3. Taramati
4. Kalsubai Shikhar

Correct Answer : Kalsubai Shikhar

Q.7    In the year _________, the Maratha Empire ceased to exist with the surrender of the Marathas to the British, ending the Third Anglo-Maratha War.    
1. 1806
2. 1792
3. 1811
4. 1818

Correct Answer : 1818

Q.8    Which state of India has the longest mainland coastline?    
1. Odisha
2. Kerala
3. Maharashtra
4. Gujarat

Correct Answer :  Gujarat

Q.9    Which Indian badminton player was runner- up at the 2019 Swiss Open tournament?
1. Parupalli Kashyap
2. Sai Praneeth
3. Kidambi Srikanth
4. Chetan Anand

Correct Answer : Sai Praneeth

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

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Q.10    Dashain' is the grandest festival of ______.    
1. Sri Lanka
2. Bangladesh
3. Nepal
4. Bhutan

Correct Answer : Nepal

Q.11    Which Indian batsman was the first to hit six consecutive sixes in first-class cricket?    
1. Sachin Tendulkar
2. Ravi Shastri
3. Sunil Gavaskar
4. Virat Kohli

Correct Answer : Ravi Shastri

Q.12    To which of the following Indian  states does the tribe of 'Nyishi' belong?    
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Bihar
4. Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Answer : Arunachal Pradesh

Q.13    _____ has been established as the annual 'International Day of Happiness'.    
1. 15th January
2. 23rd February
3. 31st March
4. 20th March

Correct Answer : 20th March

Q.14    Which of the following Indian film-makers was given the title of 'Ambassador of Interlaken' in 2011 at Switzerland?    
1. Subhash Ghai
2. Yash Johar
3. Raj Kapoor
4. Yash Chopra

Correct Answer : Yash Chopra

Q.15    Which of the following is called the 'popular chamber'?    
1. Lok Sabha
2. State Assembly
3. Rajya Sabha
4. Gram Sabha

Correct Answer : Lok Sabha

Q.16    Who is the author of the book 'India Shastra: Reflections on the Nation in our Time'?    
1. Shashi Tharoor
2. Manmohan Singh
3. A P J Abdul Kalam
4. Narendra Modi

Correct Answer : Shashi Tharoor

Q.17    Which of the following countries is the largest producer of wheat in the world?    
1. Bangladesh
2. India
3. Myanmar (Burma)
4. China

Correct Answer : China

Q.18    During World War II, the Battles of Kohima  and Imphal were fought in the year _____.    
1. 1944
2. 1943
3. 1942
4. 1945

Correct Answer : 1944

Q.19    Name the tissue that transports food to various parts of a plant.    
1. Sclerenchyma
2. Parenchyma
3. Phloem
4. Xylem

Correct Answer : Phloem

Q.20    _____ is well-known for the golden beautification of the Harmandir Sahib Gurdwara in Amritsar, famously known as the Golden Temple.    
1. Charat Singh
2. Maha Singh
3. Ranjit Singh
4. Duleep Singh

Correct Answer : Ranjit Singh

Q.21    Rajat has hypermetropia. What type of lens will the ophthalmologist recommend to correct his vision?    
1. Progressive
2. Bifocal
3. Convex
4. Concave

Correct Answer : Convex

Q.22    The term 'Dolphin Kick' is associated with which sport?    
1. Cricket
2. Football
3. Swimming
4. Rugby

Correct Answer : Swimming

Q.23    Which article of the Constitution of India provides that each Indian state will have a governor?    
1. Article 154
2. Article 153
3. Article 152
4. Article 151

Correct Answer : Article 153

Q.24    What is the distinctive characteristic of 'marsupials'?    
1. They migrate from one place to another
2. They hibernate in winter
3. They carry young ones in pouches
4. They lay eggs

Correct Answer : They carry young ones in pouches

Q.25    Blue litmus paper turns ____ on contact with an acidic solution.    
1. red
2. yellow
3. green
4. brown

Correct Answer : red

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SSC CGL English Question Bank Solved Paper By Kiran

About Book :

Kiran SSC English language Chapterwise Solved Papers 14000+ objective questions (English Medium) (3085) 1. Common errors - total question- 1586 (1282+304*) 2. Improvement of Sentence - total question- 1797 (1486+311*) 3. Transformation of Sentences (active/ passive) - total question- 811 (667+144*) 4. Direct/ indirect speech - total question- 850 (724+126*) 5. Fill in the blanks - total question-1400 (1075+325*) 6. Synonyms - total question-1061 (813+248*) 7. Antonyms - total question-1043 (802+241*) 8. One word Substitution - total question-1185 (950+235*) 9. Idioms/ phrases - total question- 1126 (910+216*) 10. Selection of MIS spelt word/ correctly spelt word - total question-987 (747+240*) 11. Arrangement of Sentences - total question- 935 (742+193*) 12. Cloze Test - total question-2220 (1745+475*) 13. Comprehension test - total question- 1777 (1337+440*) grand total no of question – 16778 (13280+3498*) * online practice question available kicx.In.

BOOK DETAILS

• Publisher : Kiran Institute of Career Excellence Pvt Ltd (KICX); 2020th edition (20 August 2020); 9205393696
• Language : English
• Price : 425/-
• Paperback : 1048 pages
• ISBN-10 : 9390285186
• ISBN-13 : 978-9390285181

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(Papers) SSC JHT Question Papers 2019 (Paper-1)

• Exam Name : Junior Hindi Translators, Junior Translators, Senior Hindi Translator Exam
• Paper-1
• Year : 2019
• Time : 2 Hour

(E-Book) SSC JHT - Junior Hindi Translators Exam Papers PDF Download

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(Result) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination, 2018 (Tier-2)

Staff Selection Commission conducted the Tier-ll(Descriptive paper) of the Combined Higher Secondary (O+2) Level Examination, 2O1g on 29.0g.201g for recruitment to the posts of Postal Assistant, Sorting Assistant, Junior Secretariat Assistant, DEO, LDC, etc.

2. Based on the cut-off fixed by the Commission, 37 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for DEST for the posts of DEO in Departments other than C&AG, 1741 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for DEST fof the post of DEO in C&AG and 30822 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for Typing Test for the posts of PostalAssistant, Sorting Assistant, Junior Secretariat Assistant, LDC, etc. 

List-I - Candidates Qualified for DEST for the Post of DEO (Other Than C&AG) :

*ln addition to the UR candidates mentioned above, 01 SC, 01 ST and 06 OBC candidates qualified at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

#No vacancy avaitable.

List-II - Candidates Qualified for DEST for the Post of DEO in C&AG :

*ln addition to the UR Sandidates rlentioned above, 35 SC, 08 ST, 339 OBC, 155 EWS, 03 OH and 01 VH candidates qualified at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories. 

#No vacancy avaitable.

List-III - Candidates Qualified for Typing Test for the post of PA,SA,JSA,LDC etc :

*ln addition to the UR candidates mentioned above, .1326 sc, 445 sr, 6g16 oBC,3507 EWS, 50 ESM, 63 OH, 02 HH and 50 VH candidates qualified at UR standard have beeh shown under their respective categories. 
Note: Only those candidates haue been consid.ered" fof the post of DEO in C&AG, who haue confirmed in their application forms that theg possess de sired educational quatification for the p o st.

3. The schedule for holding the Data Entry Speed TesUTyping Test on computer will be made available on commission's Regional offices website shorily.

4' As per para 13.7-6.7 of the Notice of the Examination, Persons with Disabilities candidates who ilaim to be permanently unfit to take the Typing Test because of a physical disability have to submit requisite Medical Certificate to the Commission at their scheduled time of Skill Test. Exemption from the Typing Test will be granted on the basis of merit of the case.

Click here to Download SSC CHSL 2018 Paper - II Result Write up

Click here to Download SSC CHSL 2018 Paper - II Result  List I

Click here to Download SSC CHSL 2018 Paper - II Result  List II

Click here to Download SSC CHSL 2018 Paper - II Result List III

Click Here to Buy Study Kit for SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam

Courtesy: SSC

(Cut off) SSC CHSL (10+2) Cut off - 2018  (Tier-II)

Staff Selection Commission conducted the Tier-ll(Descriptive paper) of the Combined Higher Secondary (O+2) Level Examination, 2O1g on 29.0g.201g for recruitment to the posts of Postal Assistant, Sorting Assistant, Junior Secretariat Assistant, DEO, LDC, etc.

2. Based on the cut-off fixed by the Commission, 37 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for DEST for the posts of DEO in Departments other than C&AG, 1741 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for DEST fof the post of DEO in C&AG and 30822 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for Typing Test for the posts of PostalAssistant, Sorting Assistant, Junior Secretariat Assistant, LDC, etc. 

List-I - Candidates Qualified for DEST for the Post of DEO (Other Than C&AG) :

*ln addition to the UR candidates mentioned above, 01 SC, 01 ST and 06 OBC candidates qualified at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

#No vacancy avaitable.

List-II - Candidates Qualified for DEST for the Post of DEO in C&AG :

*ln addition to the UR Sandidates rlentioned above, 35 SC, 08 ST, 339 OBC, 155 EWS, 03 OH and 01 VH candidates qualified at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories. 

#No vacancy avaitable.

List-III - Candidates Qualified for Typing Test for the post of PA,SA,JSA,LDC etc :

*ln addition to the UR candidates mentioned above, .1326 sc, 445 sr, 6g16 oBC,3507 EWS, 50 ESM, 63 OH, 02 HH and 50 VH candidates qualified at UR standard have beeh shown under their respective categories. 
Note: Only those candidates haue been consid.ered" fof the post of DEO in C&AG, who haue confirmed in their application forms that theg possess de sired educational quatification for the p o st.

3. The schedule for holding the Data Entry Speed TesUTyping Test on computer will be made available on commission's Regional offices website shorily.

4' As per para 13.7-6.7 of the Notice of the Examination, Persons with Disabilities candidates who ilaim to be permanently unfit to take the Typing Test because of a physical disability have to submit requisite Medical Certificate to the Commission at their scheduled time of Skill Test. Exemption from the Typing Test will be granted on the basis of merit of the case.

Click here for Official Cut off

Study Kit for SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

<< Go back to Main page

Courtesy : SSC

SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-3

(Quantitative Aptitude)

(Quantitative Aptitude)

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-3

(Reasoning)

(Reasoning)

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-3

(English Comprehension)

(English Comprehension)

Q.1 Select the correct active form of the given sentence.
Superstitions are still believed in by people.
1. People are still believing in superstitions.
2. People still believe in superstitions.
3. People have still believed in superstitions.
4. People still believed in superstitions.

Correct Answer : People still believe in superstitions.

Q.2 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. But that is for an emotional reason.
B. Learning our mother tongue is important and everyone should start there.
C. This is because proficiency in the language can lead to better opportunities.
D. Learning English, however, is important for practical reasons.
1. BDCA
2. DACB
3. BADC
4. DBAC

Correct Answer : BADC

Q.3 Select the most appropriate antonym  of the given word.
VIGILANT
1. careless
2. careful
3. elusive
4. visible

Correct Answer : careless

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
CONCISE
1. lengthy
2. complex
3. brief
4. detailed

Correct Answer : brief

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
She was so tired to work any longer.
1. so tiring to work
2. too tired to work
3. No improvement
4. so tired to not work

Correct Answer : too tired to work

Q.6 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
The child along with his parents were waiting for the programme to begin.
1. programme to begin
2. The child
3. along with his parents
4. were waiting for the

Correct Answer : were waiting for the

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
One must learn to prioritize in life. It never pays to put the cart before the horse.
1. do things spontaneously
2. do last things first
3. postpone till the last moment
4. perform many tasks simultaneously

Correct Answer : do last things first

Q.8 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
The act of looking back on past time
1. inspection
2. introspection
3. retrospection
4. circumspection

Correct Answer : circumspection

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
EXALT
1. extract
2. condemn
3. challenge
4. praise

Correct Answer : extract

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Q.10 Select the correctly spelt  word.
1. argument
2. argeument
3. arguement
4. arguemant

Correct Answer : arguement

Q.11 Select the most appropriate   meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
His success at such a young age speaks volumes for his talent.
1. showers praise
2. publically announces
3. gives enough proof
4. boasts a lot

Correct Answer :  publically announces

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
We should never ______ with the rules of driving.
1. trifle
2. tamper
3. reckon
4. temper

Correct Answer : tamper

Q.13 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
That which cannot be satisfied
1. incredible
2. CC
3. improbable
4. impossible

Correct Answer : insatiable

Q.14 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. The first of these states that the only way to have a friend is to be one.
B. Like all relationships, it is also governed by some well-defined principles.
C. Friendship is one of the most coveted relationships on earth.
D. Thus, one must be reliable as a friend to expect reliability in others.
1. BDAC
2. CBAD
3. ACBD
4. CDBA

Correct Answer : CBAD

Q.15 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
He is more smarter than his brother though he does not earn much money.
1. than his brother
2. though he does not earn
3. much money
4. He is more smarter

Correct Answer : He is more smarter

Q.16 Select the correctly spelt word.
1. menipulate
2. manipulate
3. manipulete
4. manepulate

Correct Answer : manipulate

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
He made a desperate but also partial successful effort to change the ghastly topic.
1. though part successful effort
2. but partially successful effort
3. yet also partial successful effort
4. No improvement

Correct Answer : but partially successful effort

Q.18 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
EXTRAVAGANT
1. deficit
2. pauper
3. generous
4. thrifty

Correct Answer : thrifty

Q.19 Select the correct passive form of   the given sentence
It is time to serve dinner.
1. It is time for dinner to be served.
2. It is dinner serving time.
3. It is time that dinner is serve.
4. It is time so dinner should be served.

Correct Answer :  It is time for dinner to be served.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option  to fill in the blank.
The accident victim ______ to his injuries before he could be taken to the hospital.
1. submitted
2. subscribed
3. surrendered
4. succumbed

Correct Answer : succumbed

Comprehension:

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster.Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death. 

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1
1. worse
2. bad
3. best
4. worst

Correct Answer :  worst

Comprehension :
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster. Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death.

Q.22 Select the most  appropriate option to fill in blank No.2
1. flowed
2. emitted
3. released
4. leaked

Correct Answer : leaked

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster.Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death.

Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3
1. beside
2. at
3. across
4. along

Correct Answer :  across

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster. Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death.

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4
1. abominable
2. incurable
3. deathly
4. merciless

Correct Answer : deathly

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster. Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death.

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5
1. averted
2. detained
3. momentary
4. deferred

Correct Answer : deferred

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-3

(General Awareness)

(General Awareness)

Q.1 The 'Tanakh' is the sacred text of which religion/sect?
1. Confucianism
2. Taoism
3. Judaism
4. Zen Buddhism

Correct Answer : Judaism

Q.2 Which of the following Indian authors is one of the four screenplay writers of the movie 'Kai Po Che'?
1. Chetan Bhagat
2. Ravinder Singh
3. Amish Tripathi
4. Durjoy Datta

Correct Answer : Chetan Bhagat

Q.3 The Indus Water Treaty was  signed between India and ______.
1. China
2. Pakistan
3. Afghanistan
4. Bangladesh

Correct Answer : Pakistan

Q.4 In which part of the female flower does fertilisation take place?
1. Stigma
2. Filament
3. Style
4. Ovary

Correct Answer : Ovary

Q.5 The Constitution of India was amended for the first time in which year?
1. 1954
2. 1961
3. 1960
4. 1951

Correct Answer : 1951

Q.6 In which year was the 'Battle of Goa' fought?
1. 1514
2. 1510
3. 1502
4. 1524

Correct Answer : 1510

Q.7 The interest rate charged by banks on short-term loans to their largest, most secure and most creditworthy customers is called ______.
1. Discount Rate
2. Amortised Rate
3. Variable Rate
4. Prime Lending Rate

Correct Answer : Prime Lending Rate

Q.8 In which province of China is the Huangguoshu National Park located which houses the world's largest waterfall cluster.
1. Yunnan
2. Guizhou
3. Shandon
4. Jiangsu

Correct Answer : Guizhou

Q.9 The 'Friendship Highway' is a road that connects China to ______.
1. Nepal
2. Pakistan
3. Myanmar
4. India

Correct Answer : Nepal

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Q.10 World Water Day' is annually celebrated on ______.
1. 13th August
2. 15th January
3. 22nd March
4. 2nd June

Correct Answer : 22nd March

Q.11 Who among the following is the only Indian to have won the Amateur World title in both, snooker and billiards?
1. Michael Ferreira
2. Pankaj Advani
3. Geet Sethi
4. Subhash Agarwal

Correct Answer : Pankaj Advani

Q.12 Bhavai' is a traditional dance form of ______.
1. Maharashtra
2. Punjab
3. Bihar
4. Gujarat

Correct Answer : Gujarat

Q.13 The former princely state of Tripura in the north-eastern part of India was ruled by _________Dynasty.
1. Manikya
2. Nagvanshi
3. Ahom
4. Haihaya

Correct Answer : Manikya

Q.14 In 2019, Harsh Vardhan, the union minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched the India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP). On which day was ICAP released?
1. 8th March
2. 26th January
3. 27th February
4. 15th February

Correct Answer : 8th March

Q.15 Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is calculated as a percentage of each bank's _____.
1. credit growth
2. net demand and time liabilities
3. rate of inflation
4. savings of customers

Correct Answer : net demand and time liabilities

Q.16 Which Indian author wrote the book  'The English Teacher'?
1. Khushwant Singh
2. R K Narayan
3. Vikram Seth
4. Ruskin Bond

Correct Answer :  R K Narayan

Q.17 Which one of the following is the highest altitude lake of Pakistan?
1. Satpara Lake
2. Rush Lake
3. Paristan Lake
4. Attabad Lake

Correct Answer : Paristan Lake

Q.18 ____________ became the most successful doubles player in the history of Davis Cup as on 2018.
1. Henri Leconte
2. Mark Woodforde
3. Leon Smith
4. Leander Paes

Correct Answer : Leander Paes

Q.19 When was the Constitution of Pakistan enforced?
1. 1952
2. 1965
3. 1973
4. 1947

Correct Answer : 1973

Q.20 _____assumed the title of 'Gangaikondachola' or the conqueror of the river Ganga.
1. Rajendra Chola I
2. Vijjayalay Chola
3. Rajadhiraja Chola
4. Rajaraja Chola I

Correct Answer : Rajendra Chola I

Q.21 About 70% of the sun is made up of ______.
1. Hydrogen
2. Carbon
3. Helium
4. Oxygen

Correct Answer : Hydrogen

Q.22 Which of the following was a port city​​​​​​​ of the Indus Valley Civilization?
1. Rakhigarhi
2. Lothal
3. Dholavira
4. Kalibangan

Correct Answer : Lothal

Q.23 The phrase 'Survival of the fittest' as a​​​​​​​ way of describing the mechanism of natural selection was coined by ______.
1. Louis Pasteur
2. Herbert Spencer
3. Charles Babbage
4. Marie Curie

Correct Answer : Herbert Spencer

Q.24 Night Blindness is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin _______.
1. C
2. A
3. B12
4. K

Correct Answer : A

Q.25 DNA is stored majorly in ______  of the cell.
1. cytoplasm
2. nucleus
3. golgi body
4. plasma membrane

Correct Answer : nucleus

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(Quantitative Aptitude)

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(English Comprehension)

(English Comprehension)

Q.1 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
COVETOUS
1. avaricious
2. acquisitive
3. mercenary
4. benevolent

Correct Answer : benevolent

Q.2 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
CRUCIAL
1. trivial
2. critical
3. imperative
4. pivotal

Correct Answer : trivial

Q.3 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
My father dissuaded me to try for a job as he wanted me to pursue higher studies.
1. My father dissuaded me
2. as he wanted me
3. to pursue higher studies
4. to try for a job

Correct Answer :  to try for a job

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The ship sailed smoothly owing to ______ winds.
1. tempestuous
2. favourable
3. boisterous
4. turbulent

Correct Answer : favourable

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
Some agitating miners allegation that there is no emergency measures inside the mines.
1. miners' allege that there is
2. No improvement
3. miners alleged that there were
4. miner's allegation that there are

Correct Answer : miners alleged that there were

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______  Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1
1. reduce
2. control
3. resist
4. dominate

Correct Answer : control

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______ Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2
1. restraint
2. collection
3. release
4. liberation

Correct Answer : release

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______ Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3
Ans 1. among
2. through
3. along
4. in

Correct Answer :  in

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 
Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______ Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.
 

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4
1. devoured
2. plundered
3. smashed
4. devastated

Correct Answer : devastated

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 
Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______ Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.
 

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5
1. destroyed
2. deprived
3. disabled
4. distributed

Correct Answer : deprived

Q.11 In the sentence identify  the segment which contains the grammatical error.
The length of a male swallow's tail reveal his attractiveness for a female swallow.
1. his attractiveness for
2. The length of
3. a male swallow's tail reveal
4. a female swallow

Correct Answer : a male swallow's tail reveal

Q.12 Select the correctly spelt word.
1. desperete
2. desparate
3. disparat
4. desperate

Correct Answer : desperate

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentenc e. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
The big farmers with deepest tubewells still have water, but many others face a water crisis.
1. in deep tubewells
2. No improvement
3. through deepest tubewells
4. with deeper tubewells

Correct Answer : with deeper tubewells

Q.14 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. But the rest of the students were rushing past her for a break, like she didn't exist.
B. She slowly pushed open the library door and took a seat at one of the tables in the corner.
C. And today, Jessica really felt like maybe she didn't exist.
D. When the bell rang for lunch, Jessica took her lunch box and started moving towards the library.
1. DACB
2. CADB
3. DBCA
4. BDCA

Correct Answer : DACB

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
TACITURN
1. phlegmatic
2. placid
3. reticent
4. talkative

Correct Answer : reticent

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
A ______ speech is certainly more effective than one which is verbose.
1. laconic
2. sullen
3. lengthy
4. surly

Correct Answer : laconic

Q.17 Select the correctly spelt word.
1. tution
2. voilation
3. afliction
4. exhibition

Correct Answer : exhibition

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
MAMMOTH
1. magnificent
2. perilous
3. miniscule
4. gigantic

Correct Answer :  gigantic

Q.19 Select the correct active form  of the given sentence.
Heavy taxes have been imposed on luxury items by the government.
1. The government has imposed heavy taxes on luxury items.
2. The government had imposed heavy taxes on luxury items.
3. The government imposed heavy taxes on luxury items.
4. The government is imposing heavy taxes on luxury items.

Correct Answer : The government has imposed heavy taxes on luxury items.

Q.20 Select the word which means the same as  the group of words given.
A place where fruit trees are grown
1. garden
2. farm
3. orchard
4. plantation

Correct Answer : orchard

Q.21 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
A mountaineer has to walk the tight rope as a small slip can prove to be fatal.
1. be very cautious
2. be well trained
3. be very nervous
4. be an expert

Correct Answer : be very cautious

Q.22 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
A place for storing guns and military equipment
1. aviary
2. archive
3. apiary
4. arsenal

Correct Answer : arsenal

Q.23 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
She never trusted anyone.
1. Anyone is not trusted by her.
2. Her trust was never for anyone.
3. She was never trusted by anyone.
4. No one was ever trusted by her

Correct Answer : No one was ever trusted by her

Q.24 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. Then, they spread as the unmined coal starts burning with oxygen drawn from pores and mine shafts.
B. An entire township- Jharia is to be relocated because of the uncontrollable underground fires.
C. These fires start mostly from burning trash close to coal pits.
D. This is a grave threat as poisonous fumes of carbon monoxide rise up from underground fires.
1. CDAB
2. BCAD
3. BDAC
4. DCAB

Correct Answer : BCAD

Q.25 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
The boss is going to blow his top when he discovers the blatant mistake in the balance sheet.
1. be very angry
2. be very embarrassed
3. dismiss from job
4. attack fiercely

Correct Answer : be very angry

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-2

(General Awareness)

(General Awareness)

Q.1 According to _____, pressure is equal to the force divided by the area on which it acts.
1. Stefan-Boltzmann Law
2. Newton's Law
3. Pascal's Law
4. Hooke's Law

Correct Answer : .Pascal's Law

Q.2 Which of the following is  the chemical name of baking soda?
1. Sulphate
2. Sodium hydrogen carbonate
3. Calcium hydroxide
4. Sodium carbonate

Correct Answer : .Sodium hydrogen carbonate

Q.3 Name the woman of Indian origin who was appointed Chief Executive Officer of PepsiCo in the year 2006.
1. Kiran Majumdar Shaw
2. Kalpana Morparia
3. Indra Nooyi
4. Chanda Kochhar

Correct Answer : .Indra Nooyi

Q.4 Kandyan Dance' is a typical dance form practiced in ______.
1. Nepal
2. India
3. Sri Lanka
4. Bhutan

Correct Answer : .Sri Lanka

Q.5 India of My Dreams' is a compilation of the writings and speeches of ______.
1. Dr Rajendra Prasad
2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Pate

Correct Answer : .Mahatma Gandhi

Q.6 Which Indian state launched the PRANAM Commission to protect parents of government employees?
1. Maharashtra
2. Punjab
3. Haryana
4. Assam

Correct Answer : .Assam

Q.7 In January 2019, _____ became the first Indian  state to implement 10% reservation for the economically weaker sections.
1. Gujarat
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Tripura
4. Odisha

Correct Answer : .Gujarat

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Q.8 Who among the following is/was the longest  serving prime minister of Bangladesh?
1. Sheikh Hasina
2. Khaleda Zia
3. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
4. Shah Azizur Rahman

Correct Answer : .Sheikh Hasina

Q.9 In which year did the Patharughat Peasant Uprising  against the tax policies of British take place in Assam?
1. 1873
2. 1885
3. 1862
4. 1894

Correct Answer : . 1894

Q.10 Who among the following was the first president of the Republic of China?
1. Li Xiannian
2. Yuan Shikai
3. Hu Jintao
4. Yang Sangkun

Correct Answer : .Yuan Shikai

Q.11 The Indian badminton player who won the Canadian Open Women's Doubles title in 2015 along with Ashwini Ponnappa was _____.
1. Jwala Gutta
2. P V Sindhu
3. Saina Nehwal
4. P C Tulasi

Correct Answer : .Jwala Gutta

Q.12 When the output is equal to zero, the  variable cost is ______.
1. maximum
2. zero
3. minimum
4. constant

Correct Answer : .zero

Q.13 As per Mankiw's Principles of Economics,  the standard of living of a country depends on the country's ______.
1. average wages
2. government policy
3. ability to produce goods and services
4. nominal wages

Correct Answer : .ability to produce goods and services

Q.14 In which year did Vasco De Gama land in Calicut (Kozikode)?
1. 1498
2. 1458
3. 1472
4. 1442

Correct Answer : .1498

Q.15 Which instrument is used to measure the intensity of light produced by an unknown source in terms of a standard source?
1. Ammeter
2. Dynamometer
3. Photometer
4. Calipers

Correct Answer : .Photometer

Q.16 Who discovered the first vaccine for smallpox?
1. John Hunter
2. Louis Pasteur
3. Alexander Fleming
4. Edward Jenner

Correct Answer : .Edward Jenner

Q.17 Which Indian archer won the gold medal in the women's recurve event at the 2018 Hyundai Archery World Cup?
1. Bombayla Devi Laishram
2. Dola Banerjee
3. Deepika Kumari
4. Chekrovolu Swuro

Correct Answer : .Deepika Kumari

Q.18 Identify the unit of measuring intensity of sound.
1. Knots
2. Ampere
3. Decibels
4. Candela

Correct Answer : .. Decibels

Q.19 Who among the following was the first chief minister of Kerala?
1. Pattom A Thanu Pillai
2. E M S Namboodiripad
3. R Shankar
4. C Achutha Menon

Correct Answer : .E M S Namboodiripad

Q.20 The 'Diphu Pass' which is the tri-junction between India, Myanmar and China is on this Border Line?
1. McMahon Line
2. Durand Line
3. Radcliffe Line
4. Palk Strait

Correct Answer : .McMahon Line

Q.21 Kazi Nazrul Islam is the national poet of ______.
1. Pakistan
2. Afghanistan
3. Bangladesh
4. Indonesia

Correct Answer : .Bangladesh

Q.22 Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura became states under ______.
1. North Eastern Region New State Act, 1972
2. North Eastern Republic of India Act, 1972
3. North Eastern Retention (Reconstruction) Act, 1971
4. North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971

Correct Answer : .North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971

Q.23 In January 2019, _____ was named World No.1 boxer by International Boxing Association (AIBA).
1. Simranjit Kaur
2. Lovlina Borgohain
3. Laishram Sarita Devi
4. Mary Kom

Correct Answer : .Mary Kom

Q.24 Daringbadi hill station is located in the Indian state of ______.
1. Kerala
2. Odisha
3. Maharashtra
4. West Bengal

Correct Answer : .Odisha

Q.25 Which of the following is the third highest waterfall in India?
1. Courtallam Falls
2. Suruli Falls
3. Thalaiyar Falls
4. Agaya Gangai    

Correct Answer : .Thalaiyar Falls

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "English Language"

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Govind’s father was a rich landlord, who was loved and respected by all his tenants. When he died, he left large tracts of land to Govind. But Govind did not spend a single day looking after his land. He had a funny idea, that there existed a magic potion which, if it was poured on any object would turn it into gold. He spent all his time trying to learn about this potion. People took advantage of him and cheated him. His wife grew anxious. Given the amount of money Govind was spending, she was sure that they would soon be paupers.
One day, a widely respected sage who had been to the Himalayas came to their town. Govind asked him about the potion. To his surprise the sage answered, “I have learnt how to brew such a potion. But it is a difficult process.” “Tell me!” insisted Govind, hardly able to believe his luck. “You have to collect the dew which settles on the leaves of a banana tree every morning during winter. There is a condition though. The tree should be planted and
watered regularly with your own hands. Store the collected dew in an earthen vessel and when you have five litres, bring it to me. I will recite a sacred mantra to transform the dew into the potion. A drop of the potion will be sufficient to change any object into gold.”

Govind was worried. “Winter is only for a few months in the year. It will take me years to collect the dew.” “You can plant as many trees as you want,” replied the sage., Govind went home and after talking to his wife, began clearing the large fields which has been lying vacant for years. He planted rows of banana saplings. He tended them with great care. His wife helped him too. She would take the banana crop to market and get a good price. Over the years the plantation grew and finally after six years Govind had five litres of dew. He went to the sage who smiled, uttered a mantra and sprinkled a few drops of dew on a copper vessel. To Govind’s dismay, nothing happened. “You have cheated me!” he shouted at the sage.

The sage, however, smiled. Govind’s wife then came forward with a box. The sage opened it and revealed stacks of gold coins inside. Turning to Govind he said, “You worked hard on your land and created a plantation. Your wife sold the produce in the market. It was your hard work which created this wealth, not magic. If I had told you this earlier, you would not have listened.” Govind understood the wisdom behind the sage’s words and worked even harder from that day on.

1. Why did Govind decide to cultivate a banana crop?

(a) The soil of his land was suitable only for cultivating bananas
(b) It was the most highly priced commodity in the region
(c) It could be grown at any time of the year including winter
(d) The ingredient for the magic potion could only be obtained from a banana tree.

2. What made Govind angry with the sage?

(a) The sage had conspired with Govind’s wife against him
(b) He had forgotten the magic spell and all Govind’s hard work was in vain
(c) He had lost a good deal of money in cultivating bananas
(d) None of these.

3. How did Govind acquire his dream of gold finally?

(a) The sage gave him gold as a reward for his hard work was in vain
(b) His wife diligently saved the gold he had received from his father
(c) By selling the banana plantation
(d) None of these.

4. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Govind was easily fooled by people.
B. Govind was preserving by nature.
C. The sage had never actually been to the Himalayas.

(a) Only A
(b) Both A and B
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and C

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "Arithmetic"

1. The area of a circle is 38.5 sq. cm. Its circumference (in cm) is :

(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 32

2. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fourths of its length. If the area of the floor is 768 sq. m. then the difference between the length and breadth of the hall is

(a) 8 metres
(b) 12 metres
(c) 24 metres
(d) 32 metres

3. A metallic hemisphere is melted and recast in the shape of a cone with the same base radius (R) as that of the hemisphere. If H is the height of the cone, then

4. A conical vessle whose internal radius is 12 cm and height 50 cm is full of liquid. The contents are emptied into a cylindrical vessel with radius (internal) 10 cm. The height to which the liquid rises in the cylindrical vessel is

(a) 25cm
(b) 20cm
(c) 24cm
(d) 22cm

5. Two right circular cylinders of equal volume have their heights in the ratio 1 : 2. The ratio of their radii is

6. A and B can do a work in 12 days. B and C in 15 days. C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work together, they will complete the work in:

7.A is thrice as good a work­man as B and therefore, able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Working together they will do it in:

8. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes are opened together, the time taken to fill the tank is:

(a) 50 minutes
(b) 12 minutes
(c) 25 minutes
(d) 15 minutes

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "General Awareness"

1. Postal voting is otherwise called

(a) plural voting
(b) proxy voting
(c) weighted voting
(d) secret voting

2. Stability of the Government is assured in

(a) Parliamentary Form of Government.
(b) Presidential Form of Government.
(c) Plural Executive System
(d) Direction Democracy

3. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within

(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 1 year

4. Who is the Tennis star to become World No. 1 seed at the youngest age?

(a) Stefii Graf
(b) Monica Seles
(c) Chris Evert
(d) Martina Hingis

5. What is “Vishva Mohini”?

(a) Name for India’s Beauty Queen
(b) The title given to Lata Mangeshkar for her contribution to music
(c) An Indian ship
(d) A famous book on Indian dances

6. The main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is

(a) enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements
(b) facilitating multilateral trade relations of member countries and reviewing trade policies
(c) administering trade dispute settlement procedures
(d) None of the above

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "Reasoning"

Directions: From the alternatives, select the set which ismost like the given set.

1. Given set

(23, 29, 37)

(a) (17, 21, 29)
(b) (31, 37, 49)
(c) (13, 15, 23)
(d) (41, 47, 53)

2. Given set

(8, 48, 64)

(a) (8, 26, 30)
(b) (16, 34, 31)
(c) (12, 24, 36)
(d) (11, 21, 13)

3. A series of figures are given which can be grouped into classes. From the responses, select the group into which the figures can be classified.

(a) 2, 5, 9                 (b) 1, 6, 7
     3, 6, 8                       3, 5, 8
     1, 4, 7                       2, 4, 9

(c) 2, 5, 9                 (d) 1, 3, 8
     3, 4, 8                       2, 4, 6
     1, 6, 7                       5, 7, 9

Directions: Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?

4. (a) Honey
(b) Flower
(c) Bee
(d) Wax

(a) b, a, d, c
(b) b, c, a, d
(c) d, c, b, a
(d) a, c, d, b

5. (a) Plant
(b) Food
(c) Seed
(d) Leaf
(e) Flower

(a) a,c,d,e,b
(b) c, b, d, e, a
(c) c, a, d, e, b
(d) e, d, c, b, a

6. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

Z X _ T R _ N L J _ F D

(a) V P H B
(b) V R H B
(c) U P J B
(d) U P J D

Directions: From the given responses, find the missing number/date in the series.

7. 10, 100, 200, 310 ?

(a) 400
(b) 410
(c) 420
(d) 430

8. 4/12/95,1/1/96,29/l/96, 26/2/96,?

(a) 24/3/96
(b) 25/3/96
(c) 26/3/96
(d) 27/3/96

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "General English"

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Recent advances in science and technology have made it possible for geneticists to find out abnormalities in the unborn foetus and take remedial action to rectify some defects which would otherwise prove to be fatal to the child. Though genetic engineering is still at its infancy, scientists can now predict with greater accuracy a genetic disorder. It is not yet an exact science since they are not in a position to predict when exactly a genetic disorder will set in. While they have not yet been able to change the genetic order of the gene in germs, they are optimistic and are holding out that in the near future they might be successful in achieving this feat. They have, however, acquired the ability in manipulating tissue cells. However, genetic misinformation can sometimes be damaging for it may adversely affect people psychologically. Genetic information may lead to a tendency to brand some people as inferiors. Genetic information can therefore be abused and its application in deciding the sex of the foetus and its subsequent abortion is now hotly debated on ethical lines. But on this issue geneticists cannot be squarely blamed though this charge has often been levelled at them. It is mainly a societal problem. At present genetic engineering is a costly process of detecting disorders but scientists hope to reduce the costs when technology becomes more advanced. This is why much progress in this area has been possible in scientifically advanced and rich countries like the USA, UK and Japan. It remains to be seen if in the future this science will lead to the development of a race of supermen or will be able to obliterate disease from this world.

1. Which of the following, according of genetics in becoming an exact science?

(A) Technicians will not be able to determine the time when genetic disorder will set in
(B) Technicians have not been able to manipulate germ cells.
(a) A only (b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Either A or B

2. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘squarely’ as used in the passage?

(a) rigidly
(b) firmly
(c) directly
(d) at right angle

3. Which of the following is not true, according to the passage?

(a) Society is not affected by the research in genetic engineering.
(b) Genetic engineers are not able to say some things with certainty.
(c) If genetic information is not properly handled, it will create problems.
(d) Manipulation of genes is presently done only in tissue cell.

4. According to the author, the present state of knowledge about heredity has made geneticists.

(a) introspective
(b) accusative
(c) arrogant
(d) optimistic

5. What is the tone of the author in the last sentence of the passage?

(a) resignation
(b) cautious
(c) relief
(d) concern

6. Which of the following is not true of the genetic engineering movement?

(a) Possibility of abuse
(b) It is confronted by ethical problems.
(c) Increased tendency to manipulate gene cells.
(d) Acquired ability to detect genetics disorders in unborn babies.

7. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘feat’ as used in the passage?

(a) process
(b) focus
(c) fact
(d) goal

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "Arithmetic"

1. A boy was asked to multiply a certain number by 50. He multiplied it by 30 and got his answer less than the correct one by 400. The number to be multiplied was :

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40

2. 0.6 of a number is equal to 0.08 of another number. The ratio of the numbers will be

(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 2 : 15
(d) 2 : 9

3

(a) 125
(b) 150
(c) 175
(d) 200

4.

(a) Rs. 9
(b) Rs. 24
(c) Rs. 64
(d) Rs. 1,320

5. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?

(a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 27
(d) 36

6. If *381 is divisible by 11, then the digit at tae place of * is

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 7

7. By which smallest number should 5808 be multiplied so that it becomes a perfect square?

(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 3

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8. The least number which when divided by 4, 6, 8, 12 and 16 leaves a remainder of 2 in each case is

(a) 46
(b) 48
(c) 50
(d) 56

9. Sum of two numbers is 40 and their product is 375. What will be the sum of their reciprocals?

10. The product of the LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24. The difference of the two numbers is 2. Find the numbers ?

(a) 8 and 6
(b) 8 and 10
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 6 and 4 3

11.

12. Two numbers differ by 5. If their product is 336, the sum of the two numbers is

(a) 21
(b) 28
(c) 37
(d) 51

13. The maximum number of students among whom 1001 pens and 910 pencils can be distributed in such a way that each student gets same number of pens and. same number of pencils, is:

(a) 91
(b) 910
(c) 1001
(d) 1911

14. Unit digit in (264)¹⁰² + (264)¹⁰³ is:

(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

15. Which one of the following is the least?

16.

(a) 1,200
(b) 2,400
(c) 3,000
(d) 3,200

17. If 80% of A = 50% of B and B = x% of A, then the value of x is:

(a) 400
(b) 300
(c) 160
(d) 150

18. If x is 80% of y, what percent of x is y?

(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 100%
(d) 125%

19. In a town, the population was 8000. In one year, male population increased by 10% and female population increased by 8% but the total population increased by 9%. The number of males in the town was

(a) 4000
(b) 4500
(c) 5000
(d) 6000

20. In an examination, there were 1000 boys and 800 girls. 60% of the boys and 50% of the girls passed. Find the percent of the candidates failed?

(a) 46.4
(b) 48.4
(c) 44.4
(d) 49.6

21. If A exceeds B by 40%, B is less than C by 20%, then A C is,:

(a) 28 : 25
(b) 26 : 25
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3 : 1

22. Price of sugar rises by 20%. By how much percent should the consumption of sugar be reduced so that the expendi­ture does not change?

23. In a school 70% of the students are girls. The number of boys are 510. Then the total number of students in the school is

(a) 850
(b) 1700
(c) 1830
(d) 1900