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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-3 (English Comprehension)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-3

(English Comprehension)



(English Comprehension)

Q.1 Select the correct active form of the given sentence.
Superstitions are still believed in by people.
1. People are still believing in superstitions.
2. People still believe in superstitions.
3. People have still believed in superstitions.
4. People still believed in superstitions.

Correct Answer : People still believe in superstitions.

Q.2 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. But that is for an emotional reason.
B. Learning our mother tongue is important and everyone should start there.
C. This is because proficiency in the language can lead to better opportunities.
D. Learning English, however, is important for practical reasons.
1. BDCA
2. DACB
3. BADC
4. DBAC

Correct Answer : BADC

Q.3 Select the most appropriate antonym  of the given word.
VIGILANT
1. careless
2. careful
3. elusive
4. visible

Correct Answer : careless

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
CONCISE
1. lengthy
2. complex
3. brief
4. detailed

Correct Answer : brief

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
She was so tired to work any longer.
1. so tiring to work
2. too tired to work
3. No improvement
4. so tired to not work

Correct Answer : too tired to work

Q.6 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
The child along with his parents were waiting for the programme to begin.
1. programme to begin
2. The child
3. along with his parents
4. were waiting for the

Correct Answer : were waiting for the

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
One must learn to prioritize in life. It never pays to put the cart before the horse.
1. do things spontaneously
2. do last things first
3. postpone till the last moment
4. perform many tasks simultaneously

Correct Answer : do last things first

Q.8 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
The act of looking back on past time
1. inspection
2. introspection
3. retrospection
4. circumspection

Correct Answer : circumspection

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
EXALT
1. extract
2. condemn
3. challenge
4. praise

Correct Answer : extract

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Q.10 Select the correctly spelt  word.
1. argument
2. argeument
3. arguement
4. arguemant

Correct Answer : arguement

Q.11 Select the most appropriate   meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
His success at such a young age speaks volumes for his talent.
1. showers praise
2. publically announces
3. gives enough proof
4. boasts a lot

Correct Answer :  publically announces

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
We should never ______ with the rules of driving.
1. trifle
2. tamper
3. reckon
4. temper

Correct Answer : tamper

Q.13 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
That which cannot be satisfied
1. incredible
2. CC
3. improbable
4. impossible

Correct Answer : insatiable

Q.14 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. The first of these states that the only way to have a friend is to be one.
B. Like all relationships, it is also governed by some well-defined principles.
C. Friendship is one of the most coveted relationships on earth.
D. Thus, one must be reliable as a friend to expect reliability in others.
1. BDAC
2. CBAD
3. ACBD
4. CDBA

Correct Answer : CBAD

Q.15 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
He is more smarter than his brother though he does not earn much money.
1. than his brother
2. though he does not earn
3. much money
4. He is more smarter

Correct Answer : He is more smarter

Q.16 Select the correctly spelt word.
1. menipulate
2. manipulate
3. manipulete
4. manepulate

Correct Answer : manipulate

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
He made a desperate but also partial successful effort to change the ghastly topic.
1. though part successful effort
2. but partially successful effort
3. yet also partial successful effort
4. No improvement

Correct Answer : but partially successful effort

Q.18 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
EXTRAVAGANT
1. deficit
2. pauper
3. generous
4. thrifty

Correct Answer : thrifty

Q.19 Select the correct passive form of   the given sentence
It is time to serve dinner.
1. It is time for dinner to be served.
2. It is dinner serving time.
3. It is time that dinner is serve.
4. It is time so dinner should be served.

Correct Answer :  It is time for dinner to be served.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option  to fill in the blank.
The accident victim ______ to his injuries before he could be taken to the hospital.
1. submitted
2. subscribed
3. surrendered
4. succumbed

Correct Answer : succumbed

Comprehension:

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster.Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death. 

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1
1. worse
2. bad
3. best
4. worst

Correct Answer :  worst

Comprehension :
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster. Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death.

Q.22 Select the most  appropriate option to fill in blank No.2
1. flowed
2. emitted
3. released
4. leaked

Correct Answer : leaked

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster.Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death.

Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3
1. beside
2. at
3. across
4. along

Correct Answer :  across

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster. Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death.

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4
1. abominable
2. incurable
3. deathly
4. merciless

Correct Answer : deathly

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
The Bhopal gas tragedy has been described as the world's (1)______ industrial disaster. Forty two tonnes of methyl isocyanate (2)______ from the steel containers (3)______ the Union Carbide factory and released a cloud of (4)______ gas.It left a legacy of instant and (5)______ death.

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5
1. averted
2. detained
3. momentary
4. deferred

Correct Answer : deferred

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-3 (General Awareness)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-3

(General Awareness)



(General Awareness)

Q.1 The 'Tanakh' is the sacred text of which religion/sect?
1. Confucianism
2. Taoism
3. Judaism
4. Zen Buddhism

Correct Answer : Judaism

Q.2 Which of the following Indian authors is one of the four screenplay writers of the movie 'Kai Po Che'?
1. Chetan Bhagat
2. Ravinder Singh
3. Amish Tripathi
4. Durjoy Datta

Correct Answer : Chetan Bhagat

Q.3 The Indus Water Treaty was  signed between India and ______.
1. China
2. Pakistan
3. Afghanistan
4. Bangladesh

Correct Answer : Pakistan

Q.4 In which part of the female flower does fertilisation take place?
1. Stigma
2. Filament
3. Style
4. Ovary

Correct Answer : Ovary

Q.5 The Constitution of India was amended for the first time in which year?
1. 1954
2. 1961
3. 1960
4. 1951

Correct Answer : 1951

Q.6 In which year was the 'Battle of Goa' fought?
1. 1514
2. 1510
3. 1502
4. 1524

Correct Answer : 1510

Q.7 The interest rate charged by banks on short-term loans to their largest, most secure and most creditworthy customers is called ______.
1. Discount Rate
2. Amortised Rate
3. Variable Rate
4. Prime Lending Rate

Correct Answer : Prime Lending Rate

Q.8 In which province of China is the Huangguoshu National Park located which houses the world's largest waterfall cluster.
1. Yunnan
2. Guizhou
3. Shandon
4. Jiangsu

Correct Answer : Guizhou

Q.9 The 'Friendship Highway' is a road that connects China to ______.
1. Nepal
2. Pakistan
3. Myanmar
4. India

Correct Answer : Nepal

 

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Q.10 World Water Day' is annually celebrated on ______.
1. 13th August
2. 15th January
3. 22nd March
4. 2nd June

Correct Answer : 22nd March

Q.11 Who among the following is the only Indian to have won the Amateur World title in both, snooker and billiards?
1. Michael Ferreira
2. Pankaj Advani
3. Geet Sethi
4. Subhash Agarwal

Correct Answer : Pankaj Advani

Q.12 Bhavai' is a traditional dance form of ______.
1. Maharashtra
2. Punjab
3. Bihar
4. Gujarat

Correct Answer : Gujarat

Q.13 The former princely state of Tripura in the north-eastern part of India was ruled by _________Dynasty.
1. Manikya
2. Nagvanshi
3. Ahom
4. Haihaya

Correct Answer : Manikya

Q.14 In 2019, Harsh Vardhan, the union minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched the India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP). On which day was ICAP released?
1. 8th March
2. 26th January
3. 27th February
4. 15th February

Correct Answer : 8th March

Q.15 Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is calculated as a percentage of each bank's _____.
1. credit growth
2. net demand and time liabilities
3. rate of inflation
4. savings of customers

Correct Answer : net demand and time liabilities

Q.16 Which Indian author wrote the book  'The English Teacher'?
1. Khushwant Singh
2. R K Narayan
3. Vikram Seth
4. Ruskin Bond

Correct Answer :  R K Narayan

Q.17 Which one of the following is the highest altitude lake of Pakistan?
1. Satpara Lake
2. Rush Lake
3. Paristan Lake
4. Attabad Lake

Correct Answer : Paristan Lake

Q.18 ____________ became the most successful doubles player in the history of Davis Cup as on 2018.
1. Henri Leconte
2. Mark Woodforde
3. Leon Smith
4. Leander Paes

Correct Answer : Leander Paes

Q.19 When was the Constitution of Pakistan enforced?
1. 1952
2. 1965
3. 1973
4. 1947

Correct Answer : 1973

Q.20 _____assumed the title of 'Gangaikondachola' or the conqueror of the river Ganga.
1. Rajendra Chola I
2. Vijjayalay Chola
3. Rajadhiraja Chola
4. Rajaraja Chola I

Correct Answer : Rajendra Chola I

Q.21 About 70% of the sun is made up of ______.
1. Hydrogen
2. Carbon
3. Helium
4. Oxygen

Correct Answer : Hydrogen

Q.22 Which of the following was a port city​​​​​​​ of the Indus Valley Civilization?
1. Rakhigarhi
2. Lothal
3. Dholavira
4. Kalibangan

Correct Answer : Lothal

Q.23 The phrase 'Survival of the fittest' as a​​​​​​​ way of describing the mechanism of natural selection was coined by ______.
1. Louis Pasteur
2. Herbert Spencer
3. Charles Babbage
4. Marie Curie

Correct Answer : Herbert Spencer

Q.24 Night Blindness is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin _______.
1. C
2. A
3. B12
4. K

Correct Answer : A

Q.25 DNA is stored majorly in ______  of the cell.
1. cytoplasm
2. nucleus
3. golgi body
4. plasma membrane

Correct Answer : nucleus

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-2 (English Comprehension)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-2

(English Comprehension)



(English Comprehension)

Q.1 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
COVETOUS
1. avaricious
2. acquisitive
3. mercenary
4. benevolent

Correct Answer : benevolent

Q.2 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
CRUCIAL
1. trivial
2. critical
3. imperative
4. pivotal

Correct Answer : trivial

Q.3 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
My father dissuaded me to try for a job as he wanted me to pursue higher studies.
1. My father dissuaded me
2. as he wanted me
3. to pursue higher studies
4. to try for a job

Correct Answer :  to try for a job

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The ship sailed smoothly owing to ______ winds.
1. tempestuous
2. favourable
3. boisterous
4. turbulent

Correct Answer : favourable

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
Some agitating miners allegation that there is no emergency measures inside the mines.
1. miners' allege that there is
2. No improvement
3. miners alleged that there were
4. miner's allegation that there are

Correct Answer : miners alleged that there were

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______  Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1
1. reduce
2. control
3. resist
4. dominate

Correct Answer : control

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______ Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2
1. restraint
2. collection
3. release
4. liberation

Correct Answer : release

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______ Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3
Ans 1. among
2. through
3. along
4. in

Correct Answer :  in

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 
Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______ Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.
 

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4
1. devoured
2. plundered
3. smashed
4. devastated

Correct Answer : devastated

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 
Ironically, the dams that were constructed to (1)______ floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. The (2)______ of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated- the flood situation (3)______ Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods (4)______ not only life and property but also caused soil erosion. Sedimentation (5)______ the plains of silt, a natural fertilizer.
 

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5
1. destroyed
2. deprived
3. disabled
4. distributed

Correct Answer : deprived

Q.11 In the sentence identify  the segment which contains the grammatical error.
The length of a male swallow's tail reveal his attractiveness for a female swallow.
1. his attractiveness for
2. The length of
3. a male swallow's tail reveal
4. a female swallow

Correct Answer : a male swallow's tail reveal

Q.12 Select the correctly spelt word.
1. desperete
2. desparate
3. disparat
4. desperate

Correct Answer : desperate

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentenc e. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
The big farmers with deepest tubewells still have water, but many others face a water crisis.
1. in deep tubewells
2. No improvement
3. through deepest tubewells
4. with deeper tubewells

Correct Answer : with deeper tubewells

Q.14 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. But the rest of the students were rushing past her for a break, like she didn't exist.
B. She slowly pushed open the library door and took a seat at one of the tables in the corner.
C. And today, Jessica really felt like maybe she didn't exist.
D. When the bell rang for lunch, Jessica took her lunch box and started moving towards the library.
1. DACB
2. CADB
3. DBCA
4. BDCA

Correct Answer : DACB

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
TACITURN
1. phlegmatic
2. placid
3. reticent
4. talkative

Correct Answer : reticent

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
A ______ speech is certainly more effective than one which is verbose.
1. laconic
2. sullen
3. lengthy
4. surly

Correct Answer : laconic

Q.17 Select the correctly spelt word.
1. tution
2. voilation
3. afliction
4. exhibition

Correct Answer : exhibition

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
MAMMOTH
1. magnificent
2. perilous
3. miniscule
4. gigantic

Correct Answer :  gigantic

Q.19 Select the correct active form  of the given sentence.
Heavy taxes have been imposed on luxury items by the government.
1. The government has imposed heavy taxes on luxury items.
2. The government had imposed heavy taxes on luxury items.
3. The government imposed heavy taxes on luxury items.
4. The government is imposing heavy taxes on luxury items.

Correct Answer : The government has imposed heavy taxes on luxury items.

Q.20 Select the word which means the same as  the group of words given.
A place where fruit trees are grown
1. garden
2. farm
3. orchard
4. plantation

Correct Answer : orchard

Q.21 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
A mountaineer has to walk the tight rope as a small slip can prove to be fatal.
1. be very cautious
2. be well trained
3. be very nervous
4. be an expert

Correct Answer : be very cautious

Q.22 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
A place for storing guns and military equipment
1. aviary
2. archive
3. apiary
4. arsenal

Correct Answer : arsenal

Q.23 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
She never trusted anyone.
1. Anyone is not trusted by her.
2. Her trust was never for anyone.
3. She was never trusted by anyone.
4. No one was ever trusted by her

Correct Answer : No one was ever trusted by her

Q.24 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. Then, they spread as the unmined coal starts burning with oxygen drawn from pores and mine shafts.
B. An entire township- Jharia is to be relocated because of the uncontrollable underground fires.
C. These fires start mostly from burning trash close to coal pits.
D. This is a grave threat as poisonous fumes of carbon monoxide rise up from underground fires.
1. CDAB
2. BCAD
3. BDAC
4. DCAB

Correct Answer : BCAD

Q.25 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
The boss is going to blow his top when he discovers the blatant mistake in the balance sheet.
1. be very angry
2. be very embarrassed
3. dismiss from job
4. attack fiercely

Correct Answer : be very angry

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-2 (General Awareness)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-2

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(General Awareness)

Q.1 According to _____, pressure is equal to the force divided by the area on which it acts.
1. Stefan-Boltzmann Law
2. Newton's Law
3. Pascal's Law
4. Hooke's Law

Correct Answer : .Pascal's Law

Q.2 Which of the following is  the chemical name of baking soda?
1. Sulphate
2. Sodium hydrogen carbonate
3. Calcium hydroxide
4. Sodium carbonate

Correct Answer : .Sodium hydrogen carbonate

Q.3 Name the woman of Indian origin who was appointed Chief Executive Officer of PepsiCo in the year 2006.
1. Kiran Majumdar Shaw
2. Kalpana Morparia
3. Indra Nooyi
4. Chanda Kochhar

Correct Answer : .Indra Nooyi

Q.4 Kandyan Dance' is a typical dance form practiced in ______.
1. Nepal
2. India
3. Sri Lanka
4. Bhutan

Correct Answer : .Sri Lanka

Q.5 India of My Dreams' is a compilation of the writings and speeches of ______.
1. Dr Rajendra Prasad
2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Pate

Correct Answer : .Mahatma Gandhi

Q.6 Which Indian state launched the PRANAM Commission to protect parents of government employees?
1. Maharashtra
2. Punjab
3. Haryana
4. Assam

Correct Answer : .Assam

Q.7 In January 2019, _____ became the first Indian  state to implement 10% reservation for the economically weaker sections.
1. Gujarat
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Tripura
4. Odisha

Correct Answer : .Gujarat

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Q.8 Who among the following is/was the longest  serving prime minister of Bangladesh?
1. Sheikh Hasina
2. Khaleda Zia
3. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
4. Shah Azizur Rahman

Correct Answer : .Sheikh Hasina

Q.9 In which year did the Patharughat Peasant Uprising  against the tax policies of British take place in Assam?
1. 1873
2. 1885
3. 1862
4. 1894

Correct Answer : . 1894

Q.10 Who among the following was the first president of the Republic of China?
1. Li Xiannian
2. Yuan Shikai
3. Hu Jintao
4. Yang Sangkun

Correct Answer : .Yuan Shikai

Q.11 The Indian badminton player who won the Canadian Open Women's Doubles title in 2015 along with Ashwini Ponnappa was _____.
1. Jwala Gutta
2. P V Sindhu
3. Saina Nehwal
4. P C Tulasi

Correct Answer : .Jwala Gutta

Q.12 When the output is equal to zero, the  variable cost is ______.
1. maximum
2. zero
3. minimum
4. constant

Correct Answer : .zero

Q.13 As per Mankiw's Principles of Economics,  the standard of living of a country depends on the country's ______.
1. average wages
2. government policy
3. ability to produce goods and services
4. nominal wages

Correct Answer : .ability to produce goods and services

Q.14 In which year did Vasco De Gama land in Calicut (Kozikode)?
1. 1498
2. 1458
3. 1472
4. 1442

Correct Answer : .1498

Q.15 Which instrument is used to measure the intensity of light produced by an unknown source in terms of a standard source?
1. Ammeter
2. Dynamometer
3. Photometer
4. Calipers

Correct Answer : .Photometer

Q.16 Who discovered the first vaccine for smallpox?
1. John Hunter
2. Louis Pasteur
3. Alexander Fleming
4. Edward Jenner

Correct Answer : .Edward Jenner

Q.17 Which Indian archer won the gold medal in the women's recurve event at the 2018 Hyundai Archery World Cup?
1. Bombayla Devi Laishram
2. Dola Banerjee
3. Deepika Kumari
4. Chekrovolu Swuro

Correct Answer : .Deepika Kumari

Q.18 Identify the unit of measuring intensity of sound.
1. Knots
2. Ampere
3. Decibels
4. Candela

Correct Answer : .. Decibels

Q.19 Who among the following was the first chief minister of Kerala?
1. Pattom A Thanu Pillai
2. E M S Namboodiripad
3. R Shankar
4. C Achutha Menon

Correct Answer : .E M S Namboodiripad

Q.20 The 'Diphu Pass' which is the tri-junction between India, Myanmar and China is on this Border Line?
1. McMahon Line
2. Durand Line
3. Radcliffe Line
4. Palk Strait

Correct Answer : .McMahon Line

Q.21 Kazi Nazrul Islam is the national poet of ______.
1. Pakistan
2. Afghanistan
3. Bangladesh
4. Indonesia

Correct Answer : .Bangladesh

Q.22 Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura became states under ______.
1. North Eastern Region New State Act, 1972
2. North Eastern Republic of India Act, 1972
3. North Eastern Retention (Reconstruction) Act, 1971
4. North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971

Correct Answer : .North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971

Q.23 In January 2019, _____ was named World No.1 boxer by International Boxing Association (AIBA).
1. Simranjit Kaur
2. Lovlina Borgohain
3. Laishram Sarita Devi
4. Mary Kom

Correct Answer : .Mary Kom

Q.24 Daringbadi hill station is located in the Indian state of ______.
1. Kerala
2. Odisha
3. Maharashtra
4. West Bengal

Correct Answer : .Odisha

Q.25 Which of the following is the third highest waterfall in India?
1. Courtallam Falls
2. Suruli Falls
3. Thalaiyar Falls
4. Agaya Gangai    

Correct Answer : .Thalaiyar Falls

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "English Language"

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "English Language"



Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Govind’s father was a rich landlord, who was loved and respected by all his tenants. When he died, he left large tracts of land to Govind. But Govind did not spend a single day looking after his land. He had a funny idea, that there existed a magic potion which, if it was poured on any object would turn it into gold. He spent all his time trying to learn about this potion. People took advantage of him and cheated him. His wife grew anxious. Given the amount of money Govind was spending, she was sure that they would soon be paupers.
One day, a widely respected sage who had been to the Himalayas came to their town. Govind asked him about the potion. To his surprise the sage answered, “I have learnt how to brew such a potion. But it is a difficult process.” “Tell me!” insisted Govind, hardly able to believe his luck. “You have to collect the dew which settles on the leaves of a banana tree every morning during winter. There is a condition though. The tree should be planted and
watered regularly with your own hands. Store the collected dew in an earthen vessel and when you have five litres, bring it to me. I will recite a sacred mantra to transform the dew into the potion. A drop of the potion will be sufficient to change any object into gold.”

Govind was worried. “Winter is only for a few months in the year. It will take me years to collect the dew.” “You can plant as many trees as you want,” replied the sage., Govind went home and after talking to his wife, began clearing the large fields which has been lying vacant for years. He planted rows of banana saplings. He tended them with great care. His wife helped him too. She would take the banana crop to market and get a good price. Over the years the plantation grew and finally after six years Govind had five litres of dew. He went to the sage who smiled, uttered a mantra and sprinkled a few drops of dew on a copper vessel. To Govind’s dismay, nothing happened. “You have cheated me!” he shouted at the sage.

The sage, however, smiled. Govind’s wife then came forward with a box. The sage opened it and revealed stacks of gold coins inside. Turning to Govind he said, “You worked hard on your land and created a plantation. Your wife sold the produce in the market. It was your hard work which created this wealth, not magic. If I had told you this earlier, you would not have listened.” Govind understood the wisdom behind the sage’s words and worked even harder from that day on.

1. Why did Govind decide to cultivate a banana crop?

(a) The soil of his land was suitable only for cultivating bananas
(b) It was the most highly priced commodity in the region
(c) It could be grown at any time of the year including winter
(d) The ingredient for the magic potion could only be obtained from a banana tree.

2. What made Govind angry with the sage?

(a) The sage had conspired with Govind’s wife against him
(b) He had forgotten the magic spell and all Govind’s hard work was in vain
(c) He had lost a good deal of money in cultivating bananas
(d) None of these.

3. How did Govind acquire his dream of gold finally?

(a) The sage gave him gold as a reward for his hard work was in vain
(b) His wife diligently saved the gold he had received from his father
(c) By selling the banana plantation
(d) None of these.

4. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Govind was easily fooled by people.
B. Govind was preserving by nature.
C. The sage had never actually been to the Himalayas.

(a) Only A
(b) Both A and B
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and C

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "Arithmetic"

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "Arithmetic"



1. The area of a circle is 38.5 sq. cm. Its circumference (in cm) is :


(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 32

2. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fourths of its length. If the area of the floor is 768 sq. m. then the difference between the length and breadth of the hall is

(a) 8 metres
(b) 12 metres
(c) 24 metres
(d) 32 metres

3. A metallic hemisphere is melted and recast in the shape of a cone with the same base radius (R) as that of the hemisphere. If H is the height of the cone, then


 

4. A conical vessle whose internal radius is 12 cm and height 50 cm is full of liquid. The contents are emptied into a cylindrical vessel with radius (internal) 10 cm. The height to which the liquid rises in the cylindrical vessel is

(a) 25cm
(b) 20cm
(c) 24cm
(d) 22cm

5. Two right circular cylinders of equal volume have their heights in the ratio 1 : 2. The ratio of their radii is


 

6. A and B can do a work in 12 days. B and C in 15 days. C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work together, they will complete the work in:


 

7.A is thrice as good a work­man as B and therefore, able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Working together they will do it in:


 

8. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes are opened together, the time taken to fill the tank is:

(a) 50 minutes
(b) 12 minutes
(c) 25 minutes
(d) 15 minutes

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "General Awareness"

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "General Awareness"



1. Postal voting is otherwise called

(a) plural voting
(b) proxy voting
(c) weighted voting
(d) secret voting

2. Stability of the Government is assured in

(a) Parliamentary Form of Government.
(b) Presidential Form of Government.
(c) Plural Executive System
(d) Direction Democracy

3. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within

(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 1 year

4. Who is the Tennis star to become World No. 1 seed at the youngest age?

(a) Stefii Graf
(b) Monica Seles
(c) Chris Evert
(d) Martina Hingis

5. What is “Vishva Mohini”?

(a) Name for India’s Beauty Queen
(b) The title given to Lata Mangeshkar for her contribution to music
(c) An Indian ship
(d) A famous book on Indian dances

6. The main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is

(a) enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements
(b) facilitating multilateral trade relations of member countries and reviewing trade policies
(c) administering trade dispute settlement procedures
(d) None of the above

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "Reasoning"

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -2 "Reasoning"



Directions: From the alternatives, select the set which ismost like the given set.

1. Given set

(23, 29, 37)

(a) (17, 21, 29)
(b) (31, 37, 49)
(c) (13, 15, 23)
(d) (41, 47, 53)

2. Given set

(8, 48, 64)

(a) (8, 26, 30)
(b) (16, 34, 31)
(c) (12, 24, 36)
(d) (11, 21, 13)

3. A series of figures are given which can be grouped into classes. From the responses, select the group into which the figures can be classified.

(a) 2, 5, 9                 (b) 1, 6, 7
     3, 6, 8                       3, 5, 8
     1, 4, 7                       2, 4, 9

(c) 2, 5, 9                 (d) 1, 3, 8
     3, 4, 8                       2, 4, 6
     1, 6, 7                       5, 7, 9

Directions: Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?

4. (a) Honey
(b) Flower
(c) Bee
(d) Wax

(a) b, a, d, c
(b) b, c, a, d
(c) d, c, b, a
(d) a, c, d, b

5. (a) Plant
(b) Food
(c) Seed
(d) Leaf
(e) Flower

(a) a,c,d,e,b
(b) c, b, d, e, a
(c) c, a, d, e, b
(d) e, d, c, b, a

6. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

Z X _ T R _ N L J _ F D

(a) V P H B
(b) V R H B
(c) U P J B
(d) U P J D

Directions: From the given responses, find the missing number/date in the series.

7. 10, 100, 200, 310 ?

(a) 400
(b) 410
(c) 420
(d) 430

8. 4/12/95,1/1/96,29/l/96, 26/2/96,?

(a) 24/3/96
(b) 25/3/96
(c) 26/3/96
(d) 27/3/96

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "General English"

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "General English"



Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Recent advances in science and technology have made it possible for geneticists to find out abnormalities in the unborn foetus and take remedial action to rectify some defects which would otherwise prove to be fatal to the child. Though genetic engineering is still at its infancy, scientists can now predict with greater accuracy a genetic disorder. It is not yet an exact science since they are not in a position to predict when exactly a genetic disorder will set in. While they have not yet been able to change the genetic order of the gene in germs, they are optimistic and are holding out that in the near future they might be successful in achieving this feat. They have, however, acquired the ability in manipulating tissue cells. However, genetic misinformation can sometimes be damaging for it may adversely affect people psychologically. Genetic information may lead to a tendency to brand some people as inferiors. Genetic information can therefore be abused and its application in deciding the sex of the foetus and its subsequent abortion is now hotly debated on ethical lines. But on this issue geneticists cannot be squarely blamed though this charge has often been levelled at them. It is mainly a societal problem. At present genetic engineering is a costly process of detecting disorders but scientists hope to reduce the costs when technology becomes more advanced. This is why much progress in this area has been possible in scientifically advanced and rich countries like the USA, UK and Japan. It remains to be seen if in the future this science will lead to the development of a race of supermen or will be able to obliterate disease from this world.

1. Which of the following, according of genetics in becoming an exact science?

(A) Technicians will not be able to determine the time when genetic disorder will set in
(B) Technicians have not been able to manipulate germ cells.
(a) A only (b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Either A or B

2. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘squarely’ as used in the passage?

(a) rigidly
(b) firmly
(c) directly
(d) at right angle

3. Which of the following is not true, according to the passage?

(a) Society is not affected by the research in genetic engineering.
(b) Genetic engineers are not able to say some things with certainty.
(c) If genetic information is not properly handled, it will create problems.
(d) Manipulation of genes is presently done only in tissue cell.

4. According to the author, the present state of knowledge about heredity has made geneticists.

(a) introspective
(b) accusative
(c) arrogant
(d) optimistic

5. What is the tone of the author in the last sentence of the passage?

(a) resignation
(b) cautious
(c) relief
(d) concern

6. Which of the following is not true of the genetic engineering movement?

(a) Possibility of abuse
(b) It is confronted by ethical problems.
(c) Increased tendency to manipulate gene cells.
(d) Acquired ability to detect genetics disorders in unborn babies.

7. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘feat’ as used in the passage?

(a) process
(b) focus
(c) fact
(d) goal

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "Arithmetic"

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "Arithmetic"



1. A boy was asked to multiply a certain number by 50. He multiplied it by 30 and got his answer less than the correct one by 400. The number to be multiplied was :

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40

2. 0.6 of a number is equal to 0.08 of another number. The ratio of the numbers will be

(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 2 : 15
(d) 2 : 9

3

(a) 125
(b) 150
(c) 175
(d) 200

4.

(a) Rs. 9
(b) Rs. 24
(c) Rs. 64
(d) Rs. 1,320

5. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?

(a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 27
(d) 36

6. If *381 is divisible by 11, then the digit at tae place of * is

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 7

7. By which smallest number should 5808 be multiplied so that it becomes a perfect square?

(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 3

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8. The least number which when divided by 4, 6, 8, 12 and 16 leaves a remainder of 2 in each case is

(a) 46
(b) 48
(c) 50
(d) 56

9. Sum of two numbers is 40 and their product is 375. What will be the sum of their reciprocals?

10. The product of the LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24. The difference of the two numbers is 2. Find the numbers ?

(a) 8 and 6
(b) 8 and 10
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 6 and 4 3

11.

12. Two numbers differ by 5. If their product is 336, the sum of the two numbers is

(a) 21
(b) 28
(c) 37
(d) 51

13. The maximum number of students among whom 1001 pens and 910 pencils can be distributed in such a way that each student gets same number of pens and. same number of pencils, is:

(a) 91
(b) 910
(c) 1001
(d) 1911

14. Unit digit in (264)102 + (264)103 is:

(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

15. Which one of the following is the least?

16.

(a) 1,200
(b) 2,400
(c) 3,000
(d) 3,200

17. If 80% of A = 50% of B and B = x% of A, then the value of x is:

(a) 400
(b) 300
(c) 160
(d) 150

18. If x is 80% of y, what percent of x is y?

(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 100%
(d) 125%

19. In a town, the population was 8000. In one year, male population increased by 10% and female population increased by 8% but the total population increased by 9%. The number of males in the town was

(a) 4000
(b) 4500
(c) 5000
(d) 6000

20. In an examination, there were 1000 boys and 800 girls. 60% of the boys and 50% of the girls passed. Find the percent of the candidates failed?

(a) 46.4
(b) 48.4
(c) 44.4
(d) 49.6

21. If A exceeds B by 40%, B is less than C by 20%, then A C is,:

(a) 28 : 25
(b) 26 : 25
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3 : 1

22. Price of sugar rises by 20%. By how much percent should the consumption of sugar be reduced so that the expendi­ture does not change?

23. In a school 70% of the students are girls. The number of boys are 510. Then the total number of students in the school is

(a) 850
(b) 1700
(c) 1830
(d) 1900

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-1 (English Comprehension)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-1

(English Comprehension)



(English Comprehension)

Q.1    Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. But they faced grave danger if they tried to criticize these decisions.
B. The nationalists now began to openly criticize the policies of the British.
C. The freedom movement changed this situation.
D. Under colonial rule, the people had lived in fear of the British government and did not agree with many of the decisions that they took.
1. DACB
2. CBAD
3. BADC
4. DBAC

Correct Answer : DACB

Q.2    Select the correctly spelt word.    
1. tuttion
2. tuetion
3. tuition
4. tution

Correct Answer :  tuition

Q.3    Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

One who is a great lover of books    
1. pedophile
2. xenophile
3. bibliophile
4. hemophile

Correct Answer : bibliophile

Q.4    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

DEFER
1. dread
2. dictate
3. delay
4. despair

Correct Answer : delay

Q.5    Select the correct passive​​​​​​​ form of the given sentence. 

The sailors had never encountered such a rough sea.    
1. Such a rough sea was never encountered by the sailors.
2. Such a rough sea has never been encountered by the sailors.
3. Such a rough sea is never encountered by the sailors.
4. Such a rough sea had never been encountered by the sailors.

Correct Answer : Such a rough sea had never been encountered by the sailors.

Q.6    Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. The brain is active too during sleep, sending messages for the heart to beat regularly.
B. However, the body utilizes the sleeping time effectively.
C. We spend about one third of our time sleeping.
D. It produces energy and releases hormones for repair and growth during the night.
1. CABD
2. ABDC
3. CBDA
4. BADC

Correct Answer : CBDA

Q.7    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The committee reached ______ decision regarding the appointment of the chairman.
1. a unanimous
2. a compatible
3. an exemplary
4. an agreeable

Correct Answer : a unanimous

Q.8    Select the correct active form of the given sentence. 

We will all be greatly benefitted by this scheme.
1. This scheme is going to greatly benefit us all.
2. This scheme has greatly benefitted us all.
3. This scheme will greatly benefit us all.
4. This scheme would greatly benefit we all.

Correct Answer : This scheme will greatly benefit us all.

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Q.9    In the sentence identify the  segment which contains the grammatical error.

There isn't many rice left in the house so we must replenish our stock soon.
1. There isn't many rice
2. left in the house
3. our stock soon
4. so we must replenish

Correct Answer : There isn't many rice

Q.10    Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Due to increased number of lay offs in the industry, the sword of Damocles is always hanging over the employees.    
1. a constant threat
2. strict rules and regulations
3. threat of physical harm
4. an ill omen of death

Correct Answer : a constant threat

Q.11    Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

Knowing the particular things that motivate each person help you add power to their motivation.
1. help you to add power
2. help you adding power
3. No improvement
4. helps you add power

Correct Answer : helps you add power

Q.12    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

PERPLEX    
1. deceive
2. bewilder
3. surprise
4. complex

Correct Answer : bewilder

Q.13    In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

Ten kilometres are a long distance to cover on foot for a child.
1. Ten kilometres are
2. to cover on foot
3. for a child
4. a long distance

Correct Answer : Ten kilometres are

Q.14    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

MEAGRE
1. premium
2. plentiful
3. scanty
4. inadequate

Correct Answer : plentiful

Q.15    Select the correctly spelt  word.    
1. privilege
2. peivailege
3. previledge
4. previllage

Correct Answer : privilege

Q.16    Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

True friends stay by our side through thick and thin.    
1. under all circumstances
2. in difficult times
3. in different weathers
4. in happy moments

Correct Answer : under all circumstances

Q.17    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

ARROGANCE    
1. sweetness
2. humility
3. superiority
4. vanity

Correct Answer : humility

Q.18    Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

A fictitious name used by an author
1. pesudonym
2. homonym
3. alibi
4. anonymous

Correct Answer : pesudonym

Comprehension  :  
I
n the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Leaving his car with the valet, he (1)______ the hotel and joined the large crowd milling (2)______ He found a badge waiting for him (3)______ the receptionist's table and took his (4)______ in the rear of the hall. When the place was (5)______ the moderator welcomed the crowd.

Q.19    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.    
1. entered
2. accessed
3. admitted
4. invaded

Correct Answer : entered

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Leaving his car with the valet, he (1)______ the hotel and joined the large crowd milling (2)______ He found a badge waiting for him (3)______ the receptionist's table and took his (4)______ in the rear of the hall. When the place was (5)______ the moderator welcomed the crowd.
 

Q.20    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.    
1. aside
2. about
3. out
4. into

Correct Answer : about

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Leaving his car with the valet, he (1)______ the hotel and joined the large crowd milling (2)______ He found a badge waiting for him (3)______ the receptionist's table and took his (4)______ in the rear of the hall. When the place was (5)______ the moderator welcomed the crowd.

Q.21    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.    
1. by
2. at
3. in
4. over

Correct Answer : at

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Leaving his car with the valet, he (1)______ the hotel and joined the large crowd milling (2)______ He found a badge waiting for him (3)______ the receptionist's table and took his (4)______ in the rear of the hall. When the place was (5)______ the moderator welcomed the crowd.

Q.22    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.    
1. stand
2. couch
3. seat
4. lounge

Correct Answer : seat

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Leaving his car with the valet, he (1)______ the hotel and joined the large crowd milling (2)______ He found a badge waiting for him (3)______ the receptionist's table and took his (4)______ in the rear of the hall. When the place was (5)______ the moderator welcomed the crowd.

Q.23    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.    
1. empty
2. stuffed
3. completed
4. filled

Correct Answer : filled

Q.24    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

She got a lucrative job of a translator because she was ______ in French.    
1. deficient
2. proficient
3. efficient
4. sufficient

Correct Answer : proficient

Q.25    Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

Your coming home to dinner on time should be a rule rather the exception. 
1. No improvement
2. shall be a rule rather than a exception
3. should be the rule rather than the exception
4. should be a rule rather being the exception

Correct Answer : should be the rule rather than the exception

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "General Awareness"

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "General Awareness"



1. The source of the Sun’s energy is the process of:

(a) Photoelectric emission
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) Thermionic emission

2. Which of the following is not a stringed instrument ?

(a) Guitar
(b) Sitar
(c) Trumpet
(d) Violin

3. Who created the unforgettable literary character‘Swami’?

(a) Vikram Seth
(b) R.K. Narayan
(c) Mulk Raj Anand
(d) Harivansh Rai Bachchan

4. Which of the following cities lies to the western-most longitude ?

(a) Jaipur
(b) Nagpur
(c) Bhopal
(d) Hyderabad

5. Arrange the following rivers from South to North.

(a) Cauvery
(b) Krishna
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi

6. What is the animal on the insignia of the RBI ?

(a) Lion
(b) Tiger
(c) Panther
(d) Elephant

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "Reasoning"

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SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam Mock Test -1 "Reasoning"



Directions : A statement followed by two assumptions I & II is given. Which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?

Statement : Imprisonment for 27 years made Nelson Mandela The President.

Assumptions :

I. One who will be imprisoned for 27 years will become The President
II. To become The President imprisonment is a qualification.

(a) Only I is implicit.
(b) Only II is implicit.
(c) Both I & II are implicit.
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit.

2. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

CONVERSATION

(a) Nation
(b) Version
(c) Station
(d) Reason

3. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters.

PREMONITION

(a) ACTION
(b) NATION
(c) MONITOR
(d) REMOVE

4. If A = 1, FAT = 27, then FAITH = ?

(a) 44
(b) 42
(c) 41
(d) 40

5. If the word ‘STOVE’ can be written as ‘FNBLK, how can the word ‘VOTES’ be written in that code?

(a) LBNKF
(b) LNBKF
(c) LKNBF
(d) FLKBN

6. If’PAPER’ is written as’OZODQ’, how ‘PENCIL’ can be written in that code ?

(a) QFODJM
(b) OFOBHM
(c) ODMDJM
(d) ODMBHK

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-1 (General Awareness)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 11-June-2019 Shift-1

(General Awareness)



(General Awareness)

Q.1    The Sepoy Mutiny in India started from ______.    
1. Meerut
2. Rajkot
3. Bareilly
4. Champaran

Correct Answer : Meerut

Q.2    Which of the following stars is  nearest to the sun?    
1. Sirius
2. Proxima Centauri
3. Deneb
4. Betelgeuse

Correct Answer : Proxima Centauri

Q.3    Vijay Hazare was a famous Indian player associated with the sport of ______.    
1. Boxing
2. Football
3. Rifle Shooting
4. Cricket

Correct Answer : Cricket

Q.4    Marfati' songs are traditional folk songs of ______.    
1. Afghanistan
2. Nepal
3. Pakistan
4. Bangladesh

Correct Answer : Bangladesh

Q.5    The demand for a commodity or service which is a consequence of the demand for something else is called ______.    
1. Direct Demand
2. Composite Demand
3. Derived Demand
4. Income Demand

Correct Answer : Derived Demand

Q.6    Which scientist discovered the 'Penicillin'?    
1. Alexander Fleming
2. Louis Pasteur
3. Ernst Chain
4. Robert Koch

Correct Answer : Alexander Fleming

Q.7    Name the national bird of Bhutan.    
1. Parrot
2. Magpai
3. Peacock
4. Raven

Correct Answer : Raven

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Q.8    In India, 24th January is observed as which one of the following days?    
1. National Farmer's Day
2. National Day of Elderly
3. National Girl Child Day
4. National Agricultural Day

Correct Answer : National Girl Child Day

Q.9    Who was the Indian Army Chief at the time of Bangladesh Liberation War?    
1. Sam Manekshaw
2. K M Cariappa
3. Rob Lockhart
4. Roy Bucher

Correct Answer : Sam Manekshaw

Q.10    Who among the following  wrote the book 'A History of the Sikhs'?    
1. Khushwant Singh
2. Bhai Vir Singh
3. Gurbachan Singh Talib
4. Amrita Pritam

Correct Answer : Khushwant Singh

Q.11    Which of the following authors received the Jnanpith Award in 2018?    
1. Kiran Desai
2. Vikram Seth
3. Amitav Ghosh
4. Arundhati Roy

Correct Answer : Amitav Ghosh

Q.12    The energy derived from the  heat of Earth is called ______.    
1. Solar Energy
2. Geothermal Energy
3. Biogas
4. Tidal Energy

Correct Answer : Geothermal Energy

Q.13    Who among the following was named as the Chief Executive Officer of International Cricket Council (ICC) in January 2019?    
1. N G Khaitan
2. Anurag Thakur
3. Manu Sawhney
4. Saurav Ganguly

Correct Answer : Manu Sawhney

Q.14    The summer solstice 2019 in the Northern Hemisphere will occur on ______.    
1. 20th June
2. 24th June
3. 26th June
4. 21st June

Correct Answer : 21st June

Q.15    Which of the following creatures  is oviparous?    
1. Frog
2. Squirrel
3. Rabbit
4. Mouse

Correct Answer : Frog

Q.16    What is the term of the elected representatives of a Gram Panchayat?    
1. 2 years
2. 5 years
3. 4 years
4. 3 years

Correct Answer : 5 years

Q.17    Which of the following is the smallest bird in the world?    
1. Finch
2. Robin
3. Bee Hummingbird
4. Diamond Firetail

Correct Answer : Bee Hummingbird

Q.18    The term 'cherry picking' is used in which sport?    
1. Basketball
2. Table Tennis
3. Cricket
4. Swimming

Correct Answer : Basketball

Q.19    Which article of the Constitution of India talks about the provisions for impeachment of the President of India?    
1. Article 51
2. Article 63
3. Article 54
4. Article 61

Correct Answer : Article 61

Q.20    In which year was the East India Company incorporated for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India?    
1. 1596
2. 1605
3. 1600
4. 1612

Correct Answer : 1600

Q.21    Which of the following acids is present in ant bites?    
1. Nitric acid
2. Formic acid
3. Perchloric acid
4. Malic acid

Correct Answer : Formic acid

Q.22    Jorwe culture' was a Chalcolithic archaeological site located in the present day Indian state of ______.    
1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Bihar
4. Assam

Correct Answer : Maharashtra

Q.23    Fertile riverine alluvial soil is best suited for producing ______.    
1. tea
2. rice
3. cotton
4. Corn

Correct Answer : rice

Q.24    Which economist gave the theory of Opportunity Cost?    
1. John Keynes
2. Milton Friedman
3. Adam Smith
4. Gottfried Haberler

Correct Answer : Gottfried Haberler

Q.25    Identify the foreigner who has been conferred the second highest civilian award in India, Padma Vibhushan for 'exceptional and distinguished service' in 2019.    
1. Ismail Omar Guelleh
2. Kader Khan
3. Pravin Gordhan
4. John Chambers

Correct Answer : Ismail Omar Guelleh

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