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एस.एस.सी. सीजीएल (टियर -1) परीक्षा पेपर 2019 "04 मार्च 2020" दोपहर की पाली(English Comprehension) SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Online Exam Paper - 2019 "held on 04 March 2020" Afternoon Shift (English Comprehension)



एस.एस.सी. सीजीएल (टियर -1) परीक्षा पेपर 2019 "04 मार्च 2020" दोपहर की पाली(English Comprehension) SSC CGL (Tier - 1) Online Exam Paper - 2019 "held on 04 March 2020" Afternoon Shift (English Comprehension)



(English Comprehension) :

Q.1 Select the word which means the same as the given group of words.

One who loads and unloads ships. 
1. Captain
2. Spinster
3. Rustic
4. Stevedore

Correct Answer: Stevedore

Q.2 Select the word which means the same as the given group of words.

A sudden rush of a large number of frightened people or animals. 
1. Scapegoat
2. Recluse
3. Stampede
4. Lunacy

Correct Answer: Stampede

Q.3 Select the most appropriate  ANTONYM of the given word.

Obsolete 
1. Rigid
2. Recent
3. Outdated
4. Remote

Correct Answer: Recent

Q.4 Select the correctly spelt    word. 
1. Embarasment
2. Comotion
3. Encouragement
4. Conscinteous

Correct Answer: Encouragement

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given Idiom.

The bee’s knees 
1. Observant
2. Foolish
3. Extraordinary
4. Problematic

Correct Answer: Extraordinary

Q.6 Select the most  appropriate word to fill in the blank.

A reward is a ______ which motivates a person to achieve excellence in his field. 
1. collection
2. memorial
3. recognition
4. monument

Correct Answer: recognition

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Discipline is doing any work with rules and regulations. It is (1)______ misunderstood as a restriction to freedom but it makes our life organized. Discipline is a (2)______ for students and people in different professions. A disciplined person always (3)______ in each and every field of life. Disciplined people (4)______ a disciplined society and a powerful nation. Discipline should not be (5)______ upon the people, rather it should come from within.
SubQuestion No : 7 

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option for blank number (1) 
1. usually
2. slowly
3. proudly
4. happily

Correct Answer: usually

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Discipline is doing any work with rules and regulations. It is (1)______ misunderstood as a restriction to freedom but it makes our life organized. Discipline is a (2)______ for students and people in different professions. A disciplined person always (3)______ in each and every field of life. Disciplined people (4)______ a disciplined society and a powerful nation. Discipline should not be (5)______ upon the people, rather it should come from within.
SubQuestion No : 8 

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 13-June-2019 Shift-3 (General Awareness)

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(General Awareness)

Q.1    In 2015, aircraft maker Boeing developed a metal called _____, which is lighter than air and stronger than steel.    
1. Titanium
2. Iridium
3. Molybdenum
4. Microlattice

Correct Answer : Microlattice

Q.2    Who was the first Indian to win the Miss Universe title?    
1. Sushmita Sen
2. Persis Khambatta
3. Reita Faria
4. Madhu Sapre

Correct Answer : Sushmita Sen

Q.3    _____ is a hearing-impaired Indian golfer who won her first professional title at the age of 18. In March 2019, she became the second Indian woman golfer to win on the 'Ladies European Tour'.    
1. Diksha Dagar
2. Aditi Ashok
3. Gursimar Badwal
4. Vani Kapoor

Correct Answer : Diksha Dagar

Q.4    The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan Yojana ensures old age protection for unorganised workers whose monthly income is less than or equal to _____.    
1. ₹ 12,000
2. ₹ 10,000
3. ₹ 20,000
4. ₹ 15,000

Correct Answer : ₹ 15,000

Q.5    An adult human body  has _____ bones.    
1. 300
2. 208
3. 206
4. 312

Correct Answer : 206

Q.6    What was the historical name of the city of Guwahati?    
1. Pragjyotishpur
2. Machilipattnam
3. Purushapura
4. Bhagyanagara

Correct Answer : Pragjyotishpur

Q.7    People above the age of _____ years are NOT eligible for the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan Yojana.    
1. 50
2. 45
3. 40
4. 60

Correct Answer : 40

Q.8    The Ayushman Bharat Scheme introduced by the Government of India provides medical coverage of upto ₹ _____ per family per year.    
1. 2 lakhs
2. 5 lakhs
3. 7 lakhs
4. 1 lakh

Correct Answer : 5 lakhs

Q.9    As of 2018, India is the leading milk producing country in the world, accounting for approximately _____ of the global market share.    
1. 15%
2. 19%
3. 17%
4. 22%

Correct Answer : 19%

Q.10    The Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act was passed in the year _____.    
1. 1965
2. 1948
3. 1964
4. 1956

Correct Answer : 1956

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Q.11    The approximate diameter of the sun is _____ times the diameter of Earth.    
1. 109
2. 123
3. 92
4. 146

Correct Answer : 109

Q.12    _____ is the hottest planet in the solar system.    
1. Mars
2. Earth
3. Mercury
4. Venus

Correct Answer : Venus

Q.13    _____ was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.    
1. M S Gill
2. Sukumar Sen
3. T N Seshan
4. Sunil Arora

Correct Answer :  Sukumar Sen

Q.14    Which team won the Ranji Trophy 2018-19?    
1. Vidarbha
2. Karnataka
3. Saurashtra
4. Kerala

Correct Answer : Vidarbha

Q.15    The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act was passed in the year ____.    
1. 2002
2. 2006
3. 2004
4. 2008

Correct Answer : 2006

Q.16    Name the smallest district in India.     
1. Guntur
2. Alirajpur
3. Hailakandi
4. Mahe

Correct Answer :  Mahe

Q.17    Name the westernmost point of India.     
1. Bharuch
2. Amreli
3. Dahod
4. Ghuar Mota

Correct Answer : Ghuar Mota

Q.18    Name the oldest operating port in India built by the British East India Company.    
1. Mumbai Port
2. Vishakapatnam Port
3. Chennai Port
4. Kolkata Port

Correct Answer : Kolkata Port

Q.19    Which of the following is NOT  a part of the 'Char Dham Yatra' in North India?    
1. Vaishno Devi
2. Kedarnath
3. Gangotri
4. Badrinath

Correct Answer : Vaishno Devi

Q.20    During the Sao Joao festivities, Goans present _____ to each other.    
1. beer
2. flowers
3. fish
4. fruits

Correct Answer :  fruits

Q.21    _____ was named the cleanest city in the 'Swachh Survekshan Survey 2019'.    
1. Indore
2. Mysuru
3. Surat
4. Ujjain

Correct Answer :  Indore

Q.22    The movement of the local farmers of Bardoli in Gujarat against the British in 1928 was led by _____.    
1. Lal Bahadur Shashtri
2. Lokmanya Tilak
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Vallabhbhai Patel

Correct Answer : Vallabhbhai Patel

Q.23    Wilson's disease is an inherited disorder in which excessive amounts of _____ accumulate in the body.    
1. sodium
2. copper
3. calcium
4. iron

Correct Answer : copper

Q.24    The ‘Instrument of Surrender’ which ended the Portuguese rule in India was signed on _____.    
1. 29th December 1951
2. 19th December 1961
3. 15th August 1947
4. 26th January 1948

Correct Answer : 19th December 1961

Q.25    The East India Company sent Captain William Hawkins to the court of Emperor _____ in 1608 to seek permission to open a factory at Surat.    
1. Jahangir
2. Humayun
3. Akbar
4. Shah Jahan

Correct Answer : Jahangir

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 13-June-2019 Shift-2 (English Comprehension)

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(English Comprehension)

Q.1    Select the correctly spelt word.    
1. sweatter
2. teribble
3. clettering
4. scissors

Correct Answer : scissors

Q.2    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

I am quite satisfied that I have not been ________ in doing whatever was needful for building up their character.
1. devoted
2. caring
3. affectionate
4. negligent

Correct Answer : negligent

Q.3    Given below are four jumbled sentences.  Select the option that gives their correct order. 

A. He would sit at the edge of her mother's bed and stare into her crib.
B. Arvind bumbled down the interminable corridor, suddenly reminded of his daughter in the days after she was born.
C. As a proportion to the fragment of life his daughter had seen, an hour was a vast sprawling space.
D. Some days he would imagine the world through her eyes and he would feel in his heart how long an hour actually was.    
1. ABCD
2. DACB
3. BADC
4. BCDA

Correct Answer : BADC

Q.4    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

PUBLIC
1. private
2. resticted
3. ready
4. common

Correct Answer : private

Q.5    In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

You may left the class when you have completed the test.
1. You may left
2. completed the test
3. when you have
4. the class

Correct Answer : You may left

Q.6    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

HOSTILITY
1. friendship
2. goodwill
3. sympathy
4. enmity

Correct Answer : enmity

Q.7    Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

Let us have all the regulations in black and white. 
1. printed in coloured ink
2. in writing
3. painted in colour
4. written on the black- board

Correct Answer : in writing

Q.8    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

INSULT
1. apply
2. remove
3. offend
4. offer

Correct Answer : offend

Q.9    Select the correctly spelt word.    
1. mantion
2. mention
3. mension
4. mentoin

Correct Answer : mention

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Q.10    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

PROGRESSIVE
1. aristocratic
2. conservative
3. moving
4. repeated

Correct Answer : conservative

Q.11    Select the most appropriate  option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. 

If no substitution is required, select No improvement.

The female ostrich guards the nest at night and the male guard it in the day. 
1. guards it during the day.
2. No improvement
3. guard it during the day.
4. guarding it during day.

Correct Answer : guards it during the day.

Q.12    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Today, _______ society is literally poisoning the earth with acid rain.
1. growing
2. developing
3. cosmopolitan
4. industrialised

Correct Answer : industrialised

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Marine Conservation Society is hosting the Anjarle Turtle festival 2019, aiming to make more people aware about Olive Ridley turtles. The sea (1) ______ get their names from their olive-coloured (2)______ They grow to about two feet in (3)______ and reportedly mate at around 1000 kilometers from the Anjarle (4)______ These turtles come to the beach to lay (5)______.

Q.13    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(1)    
1. fish
2. animal
3. snakes
4. turtles

Correct Answer : turtles

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Marine Conservation Society is hosting the Anjarle Turtle festival 2019, aiming to make more people aware about Olive Ridley turtles. The sea (1) ______ get their names from their olive-coloured (2)______ They grow to about two feet in (3)______ and reportedly mate at around 1000 kilometers from the Anjarle (4)______ These turtles come to the beach to lay (5)______.

Q.14    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(2)    
1. shells
2. wings
3. beaks
4. feathers

Correct Answer : shells

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Marine Conservation Society is hosting the Anjarle Turtle festival 2019, aiming to make more people aware about Olive Ridley turtles. The sea (1) ______ get their names from their olive-coloured (2)______ They grow to about two feet in (3)______ and reportedly mate at around 1000 kilometers from the Anjarle (4)______ These turtles come to the beach to lay (5)______.

Q.15    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(3)    
1. length
2. depth
3. weight
4. growth

Correct Answer : length

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Marine Conservation Society is hosting the Anjarle Turtle festival 2019, aiming to make more people aware about Olive Ridley turtles. The sea (1) ______ get their names from their olive-coloured (2)______ They grow to about two feet in (3)______ and reportedly mate at around 1000 kilometers from the Anjarle (4)______ These turtles come to the beach to lay (5)______.

Q.16    Select the most  appropriate option to fill in blank No.(4)    
1. beach
2. festival
3. sea
4. sand

Correct Answer : beach

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Marine Conservation Society is hosting the Anjarle Turtle festival 2019, aiming to make more people aware about Olive Ridley turtles. The sea (1) ______ get their names from their olive-coloured (2)______ They grow to about two feet in (3)______ and reportedly mate at around 1000 kilometers from the Anjarle (4)______ These turtles come to the beach to lay (5)______.

Q.17    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(5)    
1. eggs
2. pebbles
3. shells
4. young ones

Correct Answer : eggs

Q.18    Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

They will put away their woollens after the festival of Holi.
1. Their woollens will be put away after the festival of Holi.
2. Their woollens are being put away after the festival of Holi.
3. Their woollens are put away after the festival of Holi.
4. Their woollens have been put away after the festival of Holi.

Correct Answer : Their woollens will be put away after the festival of Holi.

Q.19    In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

Although there are more than a hundred known elements, they rarely occur at a pure state.
1. Although there are
2. they rarely occur
3. at a pure state
4. more than a hundred

Correct Answer : at a pure state

Q.20    Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. 

If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

How long you are living in this city?
1. are you live
2. are you been living
3. No improvement
4. have you lived

Correct Answer : have you lived

Q.21    Select the word which  means the same as the group of words given. 

liable to break easily
1. soft
2. brittle
3. bent
4. thin

Correct Answer : brittle

Q.22    Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

The invigilator did not know that the two boys were exchanging notes under his nose. 
1. rolled into small pellets
2. right in front of him
3. wrapped in handkerchiefs
4. written in small letters

Correct Answer : right in front of him

Q.23    Given below are four jumbled sentences.  Select the option that gives their correct order. 

A. It is a popular tourist spot for watching the sunset and sunrise over the ocean. 
B. Kanyakumari is a coastal town in the State of Tamil Nadu on India's southern tip.
C. It is also a noted pilgrimage site, thanks to its Bagvathi Amman Temple and Our Lady of Ransom Church, a centre of Indian Catholicism. 
D. Jutting out into the Laccadive sea, the town was known as Cape Comorin during the British rule.    
1. BCDA
2. DCAB
3. BDAC
4. ACDB

Correct Answer : BDAC

Q.24    Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

impossible to satisfy
1. satisfactory
2. insatiable
3. satisfiable
4. contented

Correct Answer :  insatiable

Q.25    Select the correct active form of the given sentence. 

Rudra was laughed at by all his friends when he wore his socks inside- out.
1. All his friends laughed at Rudra when he wore his socks inside-out.
2. All his friends will be laughing at Rudra for wearing his socks inside-out.
3. If Rudra wears his socks inside-out all his friends will laugh at him.
4. When Rudra wore his socks inside-out all his friends were laughing at him

Correct Answer : All his friends laughed at Rudra when he wore his socks inside-out.

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 13-June-2019 Shift-2 (General Awareness)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 13-June-2019 Shift-2

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(General Awareness)

Q.1    Who is the author of the book The Buddha and His Dhamma?    
1. Sarojini Naidu
2. Rajmohan Gandhi
3. B R Ambedkar
4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Correct Answer : B R Ambedkar

Q.2    In which medical condition is the eye's optic  nerve damaged and the condition worsens over time?    
1. Glaucoma
2. Cataract
3. Dry Eye
4. Age-related Macular Degeneration (AMD)

Correct Answer : Glaucoma

Q.3    Who among the following is/was the longest serving governor of an Indian state?    
1. Sarojini Naidu
2. Padmaja Naidu
3. N D Tiwari
4. Lakshmi Kant Jha

Correct Answer : Padmaja Naidu

Q.4    Which of the following is the highest peak in Sri Lanka?    
1. Kirigalpotta
2. Bible Rock
3. Hakgala
4. Mount Pedro

Correct Answer :  Mount Pedro

Q.5    Identify the part of brain that controls the maintenance of posture, balance and equilibrium.    
1. Diencephalon
2. Cerebellum
3. Cerebrum
4. Brainstem

Correct Answer : Cerebellum

Q.6    Which of the following is the national sport of Bangladesh?    
1. Boxing
2. Kabaddi
3. Cricket
4. Kho Kho

Correct Answer :  Kabaddi

Q.7    Which theory is used to make long-run predictions about exchange rates in a flexible exchange rate system?    
1. Portfolio Balance Approach
2. Purchasing Power Parity Theory
3. Interest Rate Approach
4. Balance of Payment Theory

Correct Answer : Purchasing Power Parity Theory

Q.8    As of April 2019 who is longest serving chief minister of an Indian state?    
1. Pawan Chamling
2. Jyoti Basu
3. Sheila Dixit
4. Jayalalitha

Correct Answer : Pawan Chamling

Q.9    Who was the first Russian prime minister to visit independent India?    
1. Nikolai Bulganin
2. Mikhail Gorbachev
3. Boris Yeltsin
4. Vladimir Putin

Correct Answer : Nikolai Bulganin

Q.10    In December 2018, Havelock Island was renamed as ________.    
1. Veer Savarkar Island
2. Netaji Subhash Bose Island
3. Swaraj Dweep
4. Swaheed Dweep

Correct Answer : Swaraj Dweep

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Q.11    Which state of India was ruled by the Ahom Dynasty?    
1. Rajasthan
2. Assam
3. Odisha
4. Karnataka

Correct Answer : Assam

Q.12    Byopa is a traditional headgear of tribes belonging to ______.    
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Goa
3. Jharkhand
4. Kerala

Correct Answer : Arunachal Pradesh

Q.13    How many sessions of the Lok  Sabha are normally held in a year?    
1. 5
2. 3
3. 7
4. 2

Correct Answer : 3

Q.14    Which was the wettest place in India in 2018 as per the India Meteorological Department (IMD)?    
1. Cherrapunji
2. Mawsynram
3. Ooty
4. Mahabaleshwar

Correct Answer : Mahabaleshwar

Q.15    Wind turbines convert ________ energy into mechanical power.    
1. gravitational
2. chemical
3. kinetic
4. nuclear

Correct Answer : kinetic

Q.16    In which part of the body is blood  produced?    
1. Lungs
2. Brain
3. Heart
4. Bone Marrow

Correct Answer : Bone Marrow

Q.17    Which theory in economics proposes that countries export what they can most efficiently and plentifully produce?    
1. Cournot Competition
2. Heckscher-Ohlin Model
3. Input-Output Model
4. Solow-Swan Model

Correct Answer : Input-Output Model

Q.18    Who among the following was the last Nawab of Awadh?    
1. Wajid Ali Shah
2. Saadat Ali Khan
3. Amjad Ali Khan
4. Muhammad Mukim

Correct Answer : Wajid Ali Shah

Q.19    Which of the following is the largest container port of India?    
1. Jawaharlal Nehru Port
2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Port
3. Paradip Port
4. Ennore Port

Correct Answer : Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Q.20    Chepu is a unique cultural symbol of ______.    
1. Bhutan
2. China
3. Myanmar (Burma)
4. Nepal

Correct Answer : Nepal

Q.21    Name the comprehensive pension management system developed by the Department of Telecom in December 2018.    
1. SAMADHAN
2. VIGYAN
3. SAMPANN
4. ACHARAN

Correct Answer : SAMPANN

Q.22    With which sport is the term  bleeder associated?    
1. Volleyball
2. Swimming
3. Cricket
4. Boxing

Correct Answer : Boxing

Q.23    What was the theme of World AIDS Day 2018?    
1. We Shall Overcome
2. Know your Status
3. Save Yourself
4. Check Yourself

Correct Answer : Know your Status

Q.24    In which year was the Battle  of Saragarhi fought?    
1. 1867
2. 1897
3. 1878
4. 1854

Correct Answer : 1897

Q.25    The study of insects is called ______.    
1. Anthropology
2. Entomology
3. Ornithology
4. Geology

Correct Answer : Entomology

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-2 (English Comprehension)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-2

(English Comprehension)



(English Comprehension)

Q.1    Given below are four jumbled sentences.  Select the option that gives their correct order. 

A. If the mixture becomes too thick add more milk.
B. Finally, add sugar and nuts, and your kheer is ready.
C. Boil milk in a heavy-bottomed pan and add rice. 
D Cook for about twenty minutes stirring every once in a while till the mixture thickens.    
1. BADC
2. DACB
3. CDAB
4. ADCB

Correct Answer : CDAB

Q.2    Select the most appropriate  meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

Throughout his speech the crowd was all ears. 
1. talking loudly
2. covering their ears
3. making a lot of noise
4. very attentive

Correct Answer : very attentive

Q.3    Choose the option that is the active form of the sentence. 

It was decided by the members that the report would be placed before the Chairman for his comments.    
1. The members decided to place the report before the Chairman for his comments.
2. Did the members decide to place the report before the Chairman?
3. The Chairman decided to place the report before the members.
4. The Chairman's comments were to be placed on the report of the members.

Correct Answer : The members decided to place the report before the Chairman for his comments.

Q.4    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word 

INTRICATE
1. complex
2. colorful
3. connected
4. complete

Correct Answer : complex

Q.5    Given below are four jumbled sentences.  Select the option that gives their correct order. 

A. This network of stories is known in academic circles as 'fiction' or ‘imagined realities'. 
B. However, an imagined reality is not a lie. 
C. Over the years, people have woven an incredibly complex network of stories. 
D. Within this network fiction not only exists but also accumulates immense power.
1. ADBC
2. DBAC
3. CADB
4. DBCA

Correct Answer : CADB

Q.6    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

ACQUIT
1. convict
2. forgive
3. evict
4. clear

Correct Answer : convict

Q.7    Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence in case there is no improvement select “No improvement”. 

The flowers smell so sweetly that I want to pluck them.    
1. smelling so sweetly
2. No improvement
3. smell so sweet
4. will smell so sweet

Correct Answer : smell so sweet

Q.8    Select the correctly spelt word.    
1. meazure
2. roberry
3. leisure
4. restaurent

Correct Answer : leisure

Q.9    Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. 

"Unless you did not do your homework you will be punished," said the teacher.    
1. do your homework
2. Unless you did not
3. said the teacher.
4. you will be punished

Correct Answer :  Unless you did not

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Q.10    Select the word which  means the same as the group of words given.

Incapable of being corrected
1. incorrigible
2. incredible
3. inviolable
4. impossible

Correct Answer :  incorrigible

Q.11    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

ABSURD
1. sensitive
2. selfish
3. sentimental
4. sensible

Correct Answer : sensible

Q.12    Select the alternative that  will improve the underlined part of the sentence in case there is no improvement select “No improvement”

I am very much pleased to see you here today.    
1. very pleased
2. No improvement
3. very pleasing
4. too much pleased

Correct Answer : very pleasing

Q.13    Select the correctly spelt word.    
1. quiete
2. queit
3. quiet
4. qiete

Correct Answer : quiet

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Although a wild elephant, Chinna Thambi did not grow up entirely in the wild. For over the last (1) ______he has had easy (2)______ to food at Thadagam, a village surrounded by the Western Ghats near Coimbatore. Brick (3) ______ tempted him with (4)______ of water and he loved the palm pith that was used as (5)______ for baking bricks.

Q.14    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(1)    
1. summer
2. annual
3. decade
4. festival

Correct Answer : decade

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Although a wild elephant, Chinna Thambi did not grow up entirely in the wild. For over the last (1) ______he has had easy (2)______ to food at Thadagam, a village surrounded by the Western Ghats near Coimbatore. Brick (3) ______ tempted him with (4)______ of water and he loved the palm pith that was used as (5)______ for baking bricks.

Q.15    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(2)    
1. entry
2. approach
3. access
4. way

Correct Answer : access

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Although a wild elephant, Chinna Thambi did not grow up entirely in the wild. For over the last (1) ______he has had easy (2)______ to food at Thadagam, a village surrounded by the Western Ghats near Coimbatore. Brick (3) ______ tempted him with (4)______ of water and he loved the palm pith that was used as (5)______ for baking bricks.

Q.16    Select the most  appropriate option to fill in blank No.(3)    
1. tub
2. kilns
3. store
4. jar

Correct Answer : kilns

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Although a wild elephant, Chinna Thambi did not grow up entirely in the wild. For over the last (1) ______he has had easy (2)______ to food at Thadagam, a village surrounded by the Western Ghats near Coimbatore. Brick (3) ______ tempted him with (4)______ of water and he loved the palm pith that was used as (5)______ for baking bricks.

Q.17    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(4)    
1. many
2. much
3. plenty
4. load

Correct Answer : plenty

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Although a wild elephant, Chinna Thambi did not grow up entirely in the wild. For over the last (1) ______he has had easy (2)______ to food at Thadagam, a village surrounded by the Western Ghats near Coimbatore. Brick (3) ______ tempted him with (4)______ of water and he loved the palm pith that was used as (5)______ for baking bricks.
    
Q.18    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(5)    
1. matter
2. logs
3. fuel
4. fodder

Correct Answer :  fuel

Q.19    Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

Since he secured the first rank Sudhir has become swollen-headed. 
1. conceited
2. unwell
3. famous
4. well-connected

Correct Answer : conceited

Q.20    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

When you want to expand your vocabulary the best thing to do is to relate a known word with an ______ one and guess the meaning from the context.
1. essential
2. unclear
3. unfamiliar
4. unnecessary

Correct Answer : unfamiliar

Q.21    Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. 

The reduction in the cost of education due to an increase in subsidies offer by the government is also seen as a reason to get more educated.    
1. The reduction in the cost of education
2. offer by the government
3. is also seen as a reason
4. due to an increase in subsidies

Correct Answer : offer by the government

Q.22    Choose the option that is the passive form of the sentence. 

A campus fire in California caused the death of at least twenty-three persons.    
1. At least twenty-three person's death was caused in a campus fire in California.
2. The death of at least twenty three persons caused a campus fire in California.
3. The death of at least twenty three persons will be caused in a campus fire in California.
4. The death of at least twenty three persons was caused by a campus fire in California.

Correct Answer : The death of at least twenty three persons was caused by a campus fire in California.

Q.23    Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

That which cannot be heard
1. hidden
2. invisible
3. inaudible
4. slight

Correct Answer :  inaudible

Q.24    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

ASSIST
1. create
2. mend
3. help
4. change

Correct Answer : help

Q.25    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

In order to ______ to a new place you may need to adjust to the ways of that culture.
1. adhere
2. avoid
3. adapt
4. adopt

Correct Answer : adopt

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

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General: 

SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-2 (General Awareness)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-2

(General Awareness)



(General Awareness)

Q.1    Who among the following became the fastest Asian to cycle around the globe in 2018?    
1. Deena Prince
2. Disha Srivastava
3. Vedangi Kulkarni
4. Swati Sani

Correct Answer : Vedangi Kulkarni

Q.2    The term ______ is prefixed to scientific terms to describe something that is constant.    
1. Mega
2. Quasi
3. Photo
4. Iso

Correct Answer : Iso

Q.3    When the fiscal deficit is high, what happens to prices?    
1. Prices increase
2. There is no direct impact on prices
3. Prices remain stable
4. Prices decrease

Correct Answer : There is no direct impact on prices

Q.4    The traditional art of 'Jamdani' weaving originated in ______.    
1. Myanmar (Burma)
2. Nepal
3. China
4. Bangladesh

Correct Answer : Bangladesh

Q.5    Dolly, the first cloned living being created at Roslin Institute in Scotland was a _____.    
1. dog
2. cat
3. sheep
4. cow

Correct Answer : sheep

Q.6    What is the value of all tangible resources such as raw materials and labour that are used in the production process called?    
1. Opportunity Cost
2. Variable Cost
3. Real Cost
4. Fixed Cost

Correct Answer : Real Cost

Q.7    The term 'Blood Moon' is used to refer to ______.    
1. Full Moon
2. Lunar Eclipse
3. Solar Eclipse
4. Crescent Moon

Correct Answer : Lunar Eclipse

Q.8    What is the chemical name of the deadly poison 'cyanide'?    
1. Sulfuric acid
2. Nitric acid
3. Hydrochloric acid
4. Prussic acid

Correct Answer : Prussic acid

Q.9    Which of the followings is  the national bird of China?    
1. Barn Owl
2. Parrot
3. Red-crowned Crane
4. Robin

Correct Answer : Red-crowned Crane

 

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Q.10    Mitra Mela was a revolutionary organisation founded by Veer Savarkar in the year ______.    
1. 1864
2. 1900
3. 1856
4. 1873

Correct Answer : 1900

Q.11    Who is the author of the book 'Freedom from Fear: And Other Writings'?    
1. Aung San Suu Kyi
2. Barak Obama
3. Nelson Mandela
4. A P J Abdul Kalam

Correct Answer : Aung San Suu Kyi

Q.12    Who is the first Indian national to win the 'Sri Lanka Rathna' award?    
1. Vinod Mehta
2. Dileep Padgaonkar
3. Narasimhan Ram
4. Khushwant Singh

Correct Answer : Narasimhan Ram

Q.13    The river Ganga emerges from Gangotri Glacier and ends at ______.    
1. Arabian Sea
2. Pacific Ocean
3. Indian Ocean
4. Bay of Bengal

Correct Answer : Bay of Bengal

Q.14    In which year was the University Grants Commission (UGC) formally established?    
1. 1950
2. 1947
3. 1956
4. 1964

Correct Answer : 1956

Q.15    How many International airports are there in India?    
1. 14
2. 16
3. 17
4. 15

Correct Answer : 17

Q.16    Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?    
1. Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. Prime Minister
4. Vice President

Correct Answer : Speaker of Lok Sabha

Q.17    Who among the following was given the title 'Quaid-i-Azam'?    
1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
2. Muhammad Ali Jinnah
3. Mahatma Gandhi
4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Correct Answer : Muhammad Ali Jinnah

Q.18    In which year did the Indian Premier League (IPL) start?    
1. 2002
2. 2008
3. 2010
4. 2004

Correct Answer : 2002

Q.19    When was Indian Super League  started?    
1. 2015
2. 2014
3. 2012
4. 2013

Correct Answer : 2013

 Q.20    UN's Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) elected _________ to the 18-member committee ‘CESCR’ for the Asia Pacific seat in 2018.    
1. Chandrashekhar Dasgupta
2. Preeti Saran
3. Arundhati Ghosh
4. Shashi Tharoor

Correct Answer : Preeti Saran

Q.21    Burma became independent soverign republic in the year _____.    
1. 1948
2. 1946
3. 1962
4. 1950

Correct Answer : 1948

Q.22    Which country in the world has the largest number of international borders?    
1. India
2. China
3. Pakistan
4. Nepal

Correct Answer : China

Q.23    Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?    
1. Glucometer
2. Sphygmomanometer
3. Lactometer
4. Thermometer

Correct Answer : Sphygmomanometer

Q.24    Catriona Gray of _____  was crowned Miss Universe in 2018.    
1. Spain
2. Brazil
3. Philippines
4. Venezuela

Correct Answer : Philippines

Q.25    Under which article of the Constitution of India can members of the Anglo Indian community be nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President?    
1. 342
2. 331
3. 326
4. 330

Correct Answer : 331

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General: 

SSC CPO 2019 Paper Hindi : दिल्ली पुलिस, केन्द्रीय सशस्त्रण पुलिस बलों में उप निरीक्षक और केन्द्रीय औद्योगिक सुरक्षा बल में सहायक उप निरीक्षक परीक्षा : 11 दिसंबर 2019 को शिफ्ट 2 पर आयोजित (तर्क शक्ति परिक्षण)

SSC PO Papers

SSC CPO 2019 Paper Hindi : दिल्ली पुलिस, केन्द्रीय सशस्त्रण पुलिस बलों में उप निरीक्षक और केन्द्रीय औद्योगिक सुरक्षा बल में सहायक उप निरीक्षक परीक्षा : 11 दिसंबर 2019 को शिफ्ट 2 पर आयोजित (तर्क शक्ति परिक्षण)



Q.1    दिए गए कथनों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़े और यह निर्णय करें कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन सा/से कथन से तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता/ते है/हैं।

कथन:
"आइए, 2 अक्टूबर को, हम देश को एकल-उपयोग प्लास्टिक मुक्त बनाने का संकल्प लें।" - भारत के प्रधान मंत्री

निष्कर्ष:
I. सभी भारतीयों को एकल- उपयोग प्लास्टिक, जैसे कि बोतलबंद पीने का पानी, का प्रयोग कम और फिर पूरी तरह से समाप्त कर देना चाहिए।

II. भारत 2 अक्टूबर को पूरी तरह से प्लास्टिक मुक्त होने जा रहा है।    
1. ना निष्कर्ष I ना ही निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।
2. दोनों निष्कर्ष I और II अनुसरण करते हैं।
3. केवल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।
4. केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है।

सही उत्तर: केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है।

Q.2    उस विकल्प का चयन क रें, जिसका चौथे पद के साथ वही संबंध है, जो पहले पद का दूसरे पद से है।

ULJ : POO :: ? : KRT    
1. FIY
2. PIO
3. PIY
4. FMO

सही उत्तर: PIO

Q.3    निम्नलिखित शब्दों  को उस क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें जिस क्रम में वे एक अंग्रेजी शब्दकोश में आते हैं।

1. Piquant
2. Pierce
3. Patent
4. Perjury
5. Pasture    
1. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
2. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
3. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
4. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

सही उत्तर: 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

Q.4    यदि एक निश्चित कूट में, HORSE को GINPQSRTDF के रूप में लिखा जाता है, तो JOCKEY को उस भाषा में कैसे लिखा जाएगा?    
1. IKNPDBJLFDZX
2. IKNPBDJLDFXZ
3. KINPBDJLDFZX
4. KIPNBDJLDFXZ

सही उत्तर: IKNPBDJLDFXZ

Q.5

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SSC PO Papers

SSC PO Papers

SSC PO Papers

सही उत्तर: SSC PO Papers

Q.6

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SSC PO Papers

SSC PO Papers

SSC PO Papers

SSC PO Papers

सही उत्तर:   SSC PO Papers

Q.7    चार शब्द दिए गए हैं,  जिनमें से तीन किसी तरह से समान हैं, जबकि एक असंगत है। असंगत का चयन करें।    
1. गुलाब
2. सेब
3. संतरा
4. तरबूज

सही उत्तर: गुलाब

Q.8    मयंक ने अपने ऑफि स से होटल तक ड्राइविंग शुरू की। वह उत्तर की ओर 10 km गया। वहां से, वह दाएं मुड़ा और 8 km गया। फिर, वह दाईं ओर मुड़ गया और 6 km गया। फिर से, वह दाईं ओर मुड़ गया और 5 km गया और अपने होटल पहुंचा।
ऑफिस से उसके होटल तक की  सबसे कम दूरी क्या है?    

1. 5 km
2. 6 km
3. 2 km
4. 9 km

सही उत्तर:  5 km

Q.9    अक्षर-समूह के चार युग्म  दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से तीन किसी तरह से समान हैं, जबकि एक असंगत है। असंगत का चयन करें।    
1. EFR – VUI
2. GJB – ROW
3. DFL – USM
4. IKN – PNK

सही उत्तर: EFR – VUI

Q.10    उस अक्षर का चयन करें  जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर आएगा।

K, I, G, E, C, ?    
1. D
2. Z
3. A
4. B

सही उत्तर: A

Q.11    उस विकल्प का चयन करें  जिसमें निम्नलिखित संख्याएँ उसी तरह से संबंधित हैं जो संबंध दी गई संख्याओं के युग्म का है।

56 – 63    
1. 154 – 171
2. 104 – 117
3. 28 – 39
4. 134 – 153

सही उत्तर: 104 – 117

Q.12    संख्याओं के चार युग्म  दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से तीन किसी तरह से समान हैं, जबकि एक असंगत है। असंगत का चयन करें।    
1. 16 – 49
2. 64 – 100
3. 48 – 81
4. 25 – 36

सही उत्तर: 48 – 81

Q.13    उस विकल्प का चयन क रें, जिसका तीसरे पद के साथ वही संबंध है, जो दूसरे पद का पहले पद से है।

428 : 717 :: 236 : ?    
1. 339
2. 349
3. 713
4. 249

सही उत्तर: 339

Q.14    चार शब्द दिए गए हैं, जि नमें से तीन किसी तरह से समान हैं, जबकि एक असंगत है। असंगत का चयन करें।    
1. विश्वकोश
2. ज्ञानकोश
3. शब्दकोश
4. पुस्तक

सही उत्तर:  पुस्तक

Q.15    चार संख्याएँ दी गयी हैं,  जिनमें से तीन किसी तरह से समान हैं, जबकि एक असंगत है। असंगत का चयन करें।    
1. 25
2. 18
3. 33
4. 24

सही उत्तर: 25

Q.16    उस विकल्प का चयन क रें, जिसका तीसरे पद के साथ वही संबंध है, जो दूसरे पद का पहले पद से है।

खेत : कृषक :: वेधशाला : ?    
1. तारे
2. खगोलविद
3. दूरबीन
4. अंतरिक्ष यात्री

सही उत्तर: खगोलविद

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Q.17    उस संख्या का चयन करें जो निम्नलिखित श्रेणी  में प्रश्न चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर आएगी।

105, 107, 103, ?, 101, 111    
1. 102
2. 113
3. 97
4. 109

सही उत्तर: 109

Q.18    उस विकल्प का चयन करें जिसका पांचवीं संख्या  के साथ वही संबंध है, जो दूसरी संख्या का पहली संख्या के साथ है और चौथी संख्या का तीसरी संख्या के साथ है।

19 : 23 :: 11 : 13 :: 7 : ?    
1. 3
2. 5
3. 11
4. 9

सही उत्तर: 11

Q.19    उस संख्या का चयन करें जो निम्नलिखित  श्रेणी में प्रश्न चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर आएगी।

1, 11, 35, 79, ?, 251    
1. 150
2. 152
3. 105
4. 149

सही उत्तर:  149

Q.20        
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सही उत्तर: 

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Q.21    ऋषभ पश्चिम की ओर चलना शुरू क रता है। 70 m चलने के बाद वह बाईं ओर मुड़ता है और 35 m सीधा चलता है। वह फिर से बाएं मुड़ता है और 30 m चलता है, फिर से वह बाईं ओर मुड़ता है और 35 m की दूरी तय करता है। वह शुरुआती बिंदु से कितनी दूर है?    
1. 40m
2. 60m
3. 100m
4. 70m

सही उत्तर: 40m

Q.22    उस विकल्प का चयन करें जिसमें  शब्दों के बीच वही संबंध है जो दिए गए शब्दों के युग्म के बीच है।

छूना : धकेलना    
1. दौड़ना : चलना
2. अस्वीकार करना : स्वीकार करना
3. बोलना : चिल्लाना
4. खाना : पीना

सही उत्तर: बोलना : चिल्लाना

Q.23        
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सही उत्तर: 

SSC PO Papers

Q.24    उस संख्या का चयन करें जो निम्न लिखित श्रेणी में प्रश्न चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर आएगी।

40, 44, 22, 26, 13, ?    
1. 20
2. 22
3. 17
4. 16

सही उत्तर: 17

Q.25    एक निश्चित कूट भाषा में, GOURD को 21-4-5-10-24 के रूप में लिखा जाता है। BRINJAL को उसी कूट भाषा में कैसे लिखा जाएगा?    
1. 26-10-3-14-18-1-16
2. 26-10-5-14-18-2-16
3. 2-10-3-14-18-1-12
4. 25-9-3-14-18-1-15

सही उत्तर:  26-10-3-14-18-1-16

Q.26        

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सही उत्तर:  18

Q.27    संख्याओं के चार समू ह दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से तीन किसी तरह से समान हैं, जबकि एक असंगत है। असंगत समूह का चयन करें।    
1. 14 : 90 : 180
2. 17 : 102 : 204
3. 12 : 72 : 144
4. 26 : 156 : 312

सही उत्तर: 14 : 90 : 180

Q.28    उस विकल्प का चयन करें जि समें शब्दों के बीच वही संबंध है जो दिए गए शब्दों के युग्म के बीच है।

खिलाडी : टीम    
1. कक्षा : छात्र
2. फूल : गुलदस्ता
3. अंगूर : दर्ज़न
4. बैंड : संगीतकार

सही उत्तर: फूल : गुलदस्ता
 
Q.29    उस विकल्प का चयन   करें जिसमें संख्याओं के समुच्चय के बीच वही संबंध है जो दिए गए संख्याओं के समुच्चय के बीच है।

(101, 106, 131)    
1. (123, 128, 153)
2. (419, 424, 437)
3. (170, 202, 137)
4. (29, 34, 39)

सही उत्तर: (123, 128, 153)

Q.30        

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सही उत्तर: 

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Q.31    उस विक ल्प का चयन करें, जिसका तीसरे पद के साथ वही संबंध है, जो दूसरे पद का पहले पद से है।

NEEDLE : MFDEKF :: BUCKET : ?    
1. CVDLFS
2. AVBLDS
3. AVBLDU
4. CVBLDU

सही उत्तर: AVBLDU

Q.32    चार अक्षर-समूह दि ए गए हैं, जिनमें से तीन किसी तरह से समान हैं, जबकि एक असंगत है। असंगत का चयन करें।    
1. QSUWY
2. NOQST
3. BDFHJ
4. EGIKM

सही उत्तर: NOQST

Q.33    यदि W = 46, BAT  = 46 है, तो 'LAMB' का मान क्या होगा?    
1. 52
2. 56
3. 28
4. 54

सही उत्तर: 56

Q.34    संख्याओं के चार समू ह दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से तीन किसी तरह से समान हैं, जबकि एक असंगत है। असंगत समूह का चयन करें।    
1. 632 : 325 : 236
2. 561 : 615 : 165
3. 426 : 642 : 246
4. 289 : 829 : 928

सही उत्तर: 632 : 325 : 236

Q.35        

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सही उत्तर: 27

Q.36        

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सही उत्तर: 

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Q.37    एक निश्चित कूट भाषा में, गुला बी को लकड़ी कहा जाता है, लकड़ी को पेन कहा जाता है, पेन को रंग कहा जाता है और रंग को भूरा कहा जाता है। इस भाषा में, निम्नलिखित में से किसका प्रयोग लिखने के लिए किया जाता है?    
1. गुलाबी
2. पेन
3. भूरा
4. रंग

सही उत्तर: रंग

Q.38    निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा विकल्प दिए गए शब्दों का अर्थपूर्ण आरोही क्रम दिखलाता है?

1.तारा
2.उपग्रह
3.आकाशगंगा
4.ग्रह
5.ब्रह्माण्ड
1. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
2. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
3. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
4. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

Note: For this question, discrepancy   is found in question/answer. Full Marks is being awarded to all candidates.

Q.39    'सुई’ ‘सिलाई’ से उसी तरह संबंधि त है जैसे 'माइक्रोस्कोप' ________ से संबंधित है।    
1. लेंस
2. प्रयोगशाला
3. विज्ञान
4. आवर्धन

सही उत्तर: आवर्धन

Q.40        

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सही उत्तर: 

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Q.41    उस अक्षर -समूह का चयन करें जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर आएगा।

TXB, QWE, NVH, KUK, ?    
1. ITM
2. JTM
3. HTN
4. HSN

सही उत्तर: HTN

Q.42        
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सही उत्तर: 

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Q.43    यदि ‘+’ का अर्थ ‘–’, ‘–’  का अर्थ '×', '×' का अर्थ ‘÷’ और ‘÷’ का अर्थ ‘+’ है, तो निम्नलिखित व्यंजक का मान क्या होगा?

12 − 3 + 15 × 5 ÷ 6 = ?    
1. 33
2. 40
3. 39
4. 42

सही उत्तर: 39

Q.44    निम्नलिखित समीकरण को  सही बनाने के लिए किन दो संकेतों को आपस में बदलना होगा?

32 − 8 ÷ 4 + 5 × 6 = 30    
1. × और ÷
2. ÷ और −
3. ÷ और +
4. × और +

सही उत्तर: ÷ और −

Q.45        

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Note: For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full Marks is being awarded to all candidates.

Q.46      

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सही उत्तर: SSC PO Papers  

Q.47    * संकेतों को बद लने और निम्नलिखित समीकरण को संतुलित करने के लिए गणितीय संकेतों के सही संयोजन का चयन करें।

(9 * 8 * 7) * 13 * 5    
1. ×, −, ÷, =
2. −, ÷, ×, =
3. ÷, −, =, ×
4. ×, =, ÷, −

सही उत्तर: ×, −, ÷, =

48.

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सही उत्तर:

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Q.49    नीचे दिए गए कथ  नों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ें। यह मानते हुए कि कथनों में दी गयी जानकारी सत्य है, भले ही यह आम तौर पर स्थापित तथ्यों से भिन्न दिखाई देती है, यह निर्णय करें कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन सा/से कथन से तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता/ते है/हैं।

कथन:
A. कुछ नर्तक गायक हैं।
B. कोई गायक अभिनेता नहीं है।

निष्कर्ष:
I. कुछ अभिनेता गायक हैं।
II. सभी गायक नर्तक हैं।    
1. केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है।
2. या तो निष्कर्ष I या निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।
3. ना निष्कर्ष I ना ही निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।
4. केवल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।

सही उत्तर:  ना निष्कर्ष I ना ही निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।

Q.50      

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सही उत्तर: 

SSC PO Papers

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SSC CPO 2019 Paper Hindi : दिल्ली पुलिस, केन्द्रीय सशस्त्रण पुलिस बलों में उप निरीक्षक और केन्द्रीय औद्योगिक सुरक्षा बल में सहायक उप निरीक्षक परीक्षा : 11 दिसंबर 2019 को शिफ्ट 2 पर आयोजित (सामान्य जागरूकता)

SSC PO Papers

SSC CPO 2019 Paper Hindi : दिल्ली पुलिस, केन्द्रीय सशस्त्रण पुलिस बलों में उप निरीक्षक और केन्द्रीय औद्योगिक सुरक्षा बल में सहायक उप निरीक्षक परीक्षा : 11 दिसंबर 2019 को शिफ्ट 2 पर आयोजित (सामान्य जागरूकता)



Q.1 नीलम और रूबी किसकी प्राकृतिक किस्में हैं?    
1. एल्यूमीनियम कार्बोनेट
2. एल्यूमीनियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड
3. एल्यूमीनियम सल्फाइड
4. एल्यूमीनियम ऑक्साइड

सही उत्तर :  एल्यूमीनियम ऑक्साइड

Q.2    निम्नलिखित में से किसका अ क्षांश नई दिल्ली के अक्षांश के एक डिग्री के भीतर है?    
1. ढाका शहर
2. एवेरेस्ट पर्वत
3. अमरनाथ गुफा
4. इस्लामाबाद शहर

सही उत्तर :  एवेरेस्ट पर्वत

Q.3    उच्च न्यायालयों और उनकी सीटों के संद र्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही ढंग से सुमेलित है ?    
1. उत्तराखंड - नैनीताल
2. मध्य प्रदेश - ग्वालियर
3. गुजरात - गांधीनगर
4. ओडिशा - संबलपुर

सही उत्तर :  उत्तराखंड - नैनीताल

Q.4    दक्षिण भारत का ज्ञान सरस्वती  मंदिर कहाँ स्थित है?    
1. तिरुनेलवेली
2. बसर
3. पुडुचेरी
4. त्रिशूर

सही उत्तर :  बसर

Q.5    निम्नलिखित में से किस बीमारी का नाम  'तारों का बुरा प्रभाव' है?    
1. इंफ्लुएंजा
2. टाइफाइड
3. हैज़ा
4. प्लेग

सही उत्तर :  इंफ्लुएंजा

Q.6    नीति (NITI) आयोग के संदर्भ  में, NITI में 'T' का क्या अर्थ है?    
1. ट्रांसफरिंग
2. ट्रैवेलिंग
3. ट्रेनिंग
4. ट्रांसफॉर्मिंग

सही उत्तर :   ट्रांसफॉर्मिंग

Q.7    किसके दौरान बेली के म नकों को देखा जा सकता है?    
1. पूर्ण सूर्यग्रहण
2. चंद्र ग्रहण
3. आंशिक सूर्य ग्रहण
4. बृहस्पति प्रच्छादन

सही उत्तर :  पूर्ण सूर्यग्रहण

Q.8    प्रसिद्ध गणितज्ञ श्रीनिवास रा  मानुजन का ज न्म कहां हुआ था?    
1. मद्रास (अब चेन्नई)
2. इरोड
3. नमक्कल
4. कुंभकोणम

सही उत्तर :  इरोड

Q.9    हीराकुड बांध किस नदी पर बनाया गया है?    
1. महानदी
2. गोदावरी
3. कृष्णा
4. बेतवा

सही उत्तर :  महानदी

Q.10    प्रसिद्ध चिकित्सक जीवक की नियुक्ति किसके दरबार में की गई थी?    
1. कृष्णदेव राय
2. अशोक
3. समुद्रगुप्त
4. बिम्बिसार

सही उत्तर :  बिम्बिसार

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Q.11    युगल विरोधाभास ______ के साथ जुड़ा हुआ है।    
1. कण भौतिकी
2. जल-गत्यात्मकता
3. क्वांटम यांत्रिकी
4. सापेक्षता का सिद्धांत

सही उत्तर :  सापेक्षता का सिद्धांत

Q.12    फ्लशिंग मीडोज  में शिफ्ट होने से पहले यूएस ओपन टेनिस चैम्पियनशिप का आयोजन स्थल कहां था?    
1. प्लाजा डिस्ट्रिक्ट
2. वुडमंड हिल्स
3. फ़ॉरेस्ट हिल्स
4. लेक्सिंगटन

सही उत्तर : फ़ॉरेस्ट हिल्स

Q.13    निम्नलिखित में से कौ न सा राज्य भारत में दालों का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक है?    
1. मध्य प्रदेश
2. उत्तराखंड
3. बिहार
4. हरियाणा

सही उत्तर :  मध्य प्रदेश

Q.14    किस भारतीय को चिरातेई वेंच र्स के पैट्रिक जे. मैकगवर्न लाइफ़टाइम अचीवमेंट अवॉर्ड 2019 से सम्मानित किया गया था?    
1. नारायण मूर्ति को
2. उदय कोटक को
3. रतन टाटा को
4. शिव नाडार को

सही उत्तर : रतन टाटा को

Q.15    विश्व व्यापार संगठन की  स्था  पना किस वर्ष की गई थी?    
1. 1942
2. 1995
3. 1947
4. 1952

सही उत्तर :  1995

Q.16    जगन्नाथ मिश्रा ______ राज्य के तीन बार मुख्यमंत्री थे।    
1. बिहार
2. ओडिशा
3. हरियाणा
4. उत्तर प्रदेश

सही उत्तर :  बिहार

Q.17    असम के किस शहर में, ब्रह्म  पुत्र नदी अपने पश्चिम की ओर से कट कर दक्षिण में बांग्लादेश में प्रवेश करती है?    
1. बोंगईगांव
2. धुबरी
3. तेजपुर
4. बारपेटा

सही उत्तर :  धुबरी

Q.18    भारत के संविधान के किस अनुच्छे द के तहत राष्ट्रपति अध्यादेश को लागू कर सकते हैं?    
1. अनुच्छेद 75
2. अनुच्छेद 123
3. अनुच्छेद 101
4. अनुच्छेद 168

सही उत्तर :  अनुच्छेद 123

Q.19    ईएमएस (EMS) नंबूदरीपाद किस  पार्टी से सम्बंधित थे?    
1. केरल कांग्रेस
2. सीपीआई (एम)
3. सीपीआई (CPI)
4. एसयूसीआई (SUCI)

सही उत्तर :  सीपीआई (एम)

Q.20    बक्सर का युद्ध किस वर्ष  में लड़ा गया था?    
1. 1764
2. 1758
3. 1765
4. 1757

सही उत्तर :  1764

Q.21    भारत ने कितनी बार ICC U- 19 विश्व कप जीता है?    
1. एक बार
2. दो बार
3. तीन बार
4. चार बार

सही उत्तर : चार बार  

Q.22    निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सं योजन कठोर जल में उच्च मात्रा में मौजूद रहता हैं?    
1. सोडियम और मैग्नीशियम
2. कैल्शियम और सोडियम
3. सोडियम और मैंगनीज
4. कैल्शियम और मैग्नीशियम

सही उत्तर :  कैल्शियम और मैग्नीशियम

Q.23    1962 के भारत-चीन युद्ध  की पृष्ठभूमि पर निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी फिल्म आधारित है?    
1. रोजा
2. हकीकत
3. आक्रोश
4. हज़ारों ख्वाहिशें ऐसी

सही उत्तर :  हकीकत

Q.24    फीफा विश्व कप मैच में स बसे तेज गोल (ग्यारहवें सेकंड में) स्कोर करने का रिकॉर्ड किसका है?    
1. हकन सुकुर
2. काइलन मबप्पे
3. पेले
4. क्रिस्टियानो रोनाल्डो

सही उत्तर :  हकन सुकुर

Q.25    The temple at Lepakshi famous for its hanging pillars and constructed in Vijayanagara style is also called _______ temple.    
1. Veerabhadra
2. Murugan
3. Mahakaal
4. Mahalakshmi

सही उत्तर :  Veerabhadra

Q.26    स्वतंत्रता संग्राम के दौरान, भा रतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के एकमात्र अध्यक्ष कौन थे जिन्होंने निर्वाचित होने के बाद भी अध्यक्ष पद से इस्तीफा दे दिया था?    
1. सुभाष चंद्र बोस
2. जेबी कृपलानी
3. नेली सेनगुप्ता
4. जवाहर लाल नेहरू

सही उत्तर :  सुभाष चंद्र बोस

Q.27    भारत में पहला स्वदेश नि र्मित परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र कहाँ स्थित है?    
1. तारापुर में 
2. कलपक्कम में 
3. ट्रॉम्बे में 
4. कोटा में 

सही उत्तर :  कलपक्कम में 

Q.28    निम्नलिखित में से अलकनं दा और मंदाकिनी का संगम कौन सा है?    
1. नंदप्रयाग
2. देवप्रयाग
3. रुद्रप्रयाग
4. विष्णुप्रयाग

सही उत्तर :  रुद्रप्रयाग

Q.29    एनपीसीआई (NPCI) का पूर्ण  रूप क्या है जो भारत में सभी खुदरा भुगतान प्रणाली के लिए एक मूल संगठन है?    
1. नॉन-कॅश पेमेंट्स कारपोरेशन ऑफ़ इंडिया
2. नॉन-कॅश पेमेंट्स कोऑपरेटिव आईएनसी.
3. नेशनल पेमेंट्स कारपोरेशन ऑफ़ इंडिया 
4. नेट पेमेंट्स कंपनी आईएनसी.

सही उत्तर :  नेशनल पेमेंट्स कारपोरेशन ऑफ़ इंडिया 

Q.30    राजवाड़ा महल (सांस्कृतिक ध रोहर परियोजना) ______ में स्थित है।    
1. उज्जैन
2. जबलपुर
3. इंदौर
4. मांडू

सही उत्तर : इंदौर 

Q.31    किसने, फांसी पर चढ़ने से प हले, यह इच्छा व्यक्त की थी कि उनकी राख को भारत के पुनः संगठित होने तक संभाल कर रखा जाए और एकीकरण के बाद उसे सिंधु में विसर्जित कर दिया जाए?    
1. नाथूराम गोडसे
2. सूर्य सेन
3. उधम सिंह
4. भगत सिंह

सही उत्तर :  नाथूराम गोडसे

Q.32    किस पंचवर्षीय योजना के तह  त, राउरकेला, भिलाई और दुर्गापुर के इस्पात संयंत्र स्थापित किए गए थे?    
1. दूसरी
2. चौथी
3. तीसरी
4. सातवीं

सही उत्तर :  दूसरी

Q.33    निम्नलिखित में से किस   गतिविधि को 'गोल्ड कॉलर' पेशा भी कहा जाता है?    
1. प्राथमिक
2. चतुर्थ भागी
3. पंच भागी
4. माध्यमिक

सही उत्तर :  पंच भागी

Q.34    छद्म नाम 'भानुसिंह' का प्रयो ग किसने किया?    
1. रविंद्रनाथ टैगोर
2. सुनील गंगोपाध्याय
3. माइकल मधुसूदन दत्त
4. बंकिम चंद्र चट्टोपाध्याय

सही उत्तर :  रविंद्रनाथ टैगोर

Q.35    निम्नलिखित में से कौन फौ कॉल्ट के पेंडुलम के दोलन की सतह के घूर्णन के लिए जिम्मेदार है?    
1. केन्द्राभिमुख बल
2. अभिकेन्द्रीय बल
3. वायु का विस्कस ड्रैग
4. कोरिओलिस बल

सही उत्तर : कोरिओलिस बल 

Q.36    एक कप्तान के रूप में टेस्ट मैच की पारी में सर्वाधिक 150 से अधि क रन बनाने का रिकॉर्ड किसका है?    
1. वैली हैमंड
2. रिकी पोंटिंग
3. विराट कोहली
4. डॉन ब्रैडमैन

सही उत्तर :  विराट कोहली

Q.37    सुभाष चंद्र बोस का जन्म स्थान ______ है।    
1. पटना
2. कटक
3. हजारीबाग
4. कोलकाता

सही उत्तर : कटक 

Q.38    GST के संबंध में निम्नलिखित  में से कौन सा सही है?    
1. जीएसटी परिषद एक वैधानिक निकाय है
2. केंद्र की जीएसटी नेटवर्क में 100 प्रतिशत हिस्सेदारी है
3. जीएसटी नेटवर्क का गठन कंपनी अधिनियम के तहत किया गया था
4. 100 वें संशोधन ने देश में जीएसटी लागू किया

सही उत्तर :  जीएसटी नेटवर्क का गठन कंपनी अधिनियम के तहत किया गया था

Q.39    युद्ध सेवा पदक से सम्मानित  होने वाली पहली महिला कौन है?    
1. अपर्णा कुमार
2. शालिजा धामी
3. भावना कंठ
4. मिन्टी अग्रवाल

सही उत्तर :  मिन्टी अग्रवाल

Q.40    निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी बीमारी  मुख्य रूप से विटामिन सी की कमी से होती है?    
1. घेघा
2. क्वाशरकर
3. स्कर्वी
4. रिकेट्स

सही उत्तर :  स्कर्वी

Q.41    फरवरी 2019 में, भारत ने समुद्री प्रदूष ण की रोकथाम के लिए ______ के साथ आशय पत्र पर हस्ताक्षर किए थे।    
1. भूटान
2. डेनमार्क
3. कंबोडिया
4. नॉर्वे

सही उत्तर : नॉर्वे  

Q.42    'स्वामी विवेकानंद इन द वेस्ट: न्यू   डिस्कवरीज’ के लेखक कौन हैं?    
1. रोमैन रोलैंड
2. स्वामी रंगनाथनंद
3. मेरी लुईस बर्क
4. भगिनी निवेदिता

सही उत्तर :  मेरी लुईस बर्क

Q.43    आंख का कौन सा हिस्सा किसी वस्तु की छवि के तंत्रिका संकेतों में रूपांतरण के लिए जिम्मेदार होता है?    
1. आँख की पुतली
2. नेत्रकाचाभ द्रव
3. रेटिना
4. आँखों की नस

सही उत्तर :  रेटिना

Q.44    असम में 'पोवा म क्का' ______ का मक़बरा है।    
1. शेख़ सलीम चिश्ती
2. ख़्वाजा बंदे नवाज़
3. शुजाउद्दीन मोहम्मद शाह
4. पीर गियासुद्दीन औलिया

सही उत्तर :  पीर गियासुद्दीन औलिया

Q.45    प्रधान मंत्री मुद्रा योजना के तहत अनुमन्य ऋण की अधिकतम राशि कितनी है?    
1. ₹12 लाख
2. ₹10 लाख
3. ₹5 लाख
4. ₹3 लाख

सही उत्तर :  ₹10 लाख

Q.46    निम्नलिखित में से कौन संयुक्त रा ष्ट्र की आधिकारिक भाषा नहीं है?    
1. जापानी
2. चीनी
3. अरबी
4. अंग्रेज़ी

सही उत्तर :  जापानी

Q.47    Which among the following  is a copper mineral?    
1. azurite
2. halite
3. bauxite
4. hematite

सही उत्तर : azurite 

Q.48    2019 के आम चुनावों के दौरान नि म्नलिखित में से कौन सा राजनीतिक दल एनडीए का हिस्सा था?    
1. द्रमुक (DMK)
2. लोजपा (LJP)
3. राजद (RJD)
4. ए. आई. टी. सी. (AITC)

सही उत्तर :  लोजपा (LJP)

Q.49    भारत के राज्य वन रिपोर्ट 2017 के अनुसार, निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में क्षेत्रफल के संबंध में वन का अधिकतम प्रतिशत है?    
1. महाराष्ट्र
2. असम
3. ओडिशा
4. मिजोरम

सही उत्तर :  मिजोरम

Q.50    1968 में निम्नलिखित में से किसे  साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार मिला?    
1. अमृता प्रीतम
2. बुद्धदेव बसु
3. कैफ़ी आज़मी
4. हरिवंशराय बच्चन

सही उत्तर :  हरिवंशराय बच्चन

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Exams: 

SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-1 (English Comprehension)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-1

(English Comprehension)



(English Comprehension)

Q.1    Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

Ishwarchand Vidyasagar use the ancient text to suggestion that widows could remarry.
1. used the ancient texts suggests
2. used the ancient texts to suggest
3. use the ancient texts for suggestion
4. No improvement

Correct Answer : used the ancient texts to suggest

Q.2    Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

Credit cards are replacing cash transactions.
1. Cash transactions have been replaced by credit cards.
2. Cash transactions are replaced by credit cards.
3. Cash transactions had been replaced by credit cards.
4. Cash transactions are being replaced by credit cards.

Correct Answer : Cash transactions are being replaced by credit cards.

Q.3    Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

I have not saw him since I last leave the town.
1. seen him since I last left
2. seen him for I last left
3. No improvement
4. see him since I last left

Correct Answer : seen him since I last left

Q.4    Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

A state of perfect balance
1. equinox
2. equilibrium
3. equivalent
4. equilateral

Correct Answer : equilibrium

Q.5    Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

The man heaved a sigh of relief when he was sure he was out of the woods. 
1. discharged from hospital
2. released from prison
3. out of the forest
4. out of danger

Correct Answer : out of danger

Q.6    Select the most appropriate  antonym of the given word.

FOREIGN
1. rural
2. rustic
3. native
4. Indian

Correct Answer : native

Q.7    Select the correctly spelt word.    
1. exhilerate
2. exhilarate
3. exilarate
4. exilerate

Correct Answer :exhilarate

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

English is not a language that (1)______ in India. But it is used extensively in (2)______country. India comes second on the list of countries (3)______most English speakers,albeit not as the first language. English is more (4)______than any single Indian language! It has managed to (5)______the entire world.

Q.8    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(1)    
1. created
2. developed
3. originated
4. derived

Correct Answer :originated

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

English is not a language that (1)______ in India. But it is used extensively in (2)______country. India comes second on the list of countries (3)______most English speakers,albeit not as the first language. English is more (4)______than any single Indian language! It has managed to (5)______the entire world.

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Q.9    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(2)    
1. the
2. a
3. one
4. an

Correct Answer :the

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

English is not a language that (1)______ in India. But it is used extensively in (2)______country. India comes second on the list of countries (3)______most English speakers,albeit not as the first language. English is more (4)______than any single Indian language! It has managed to (5)______the entire world.

Q.10    Select the   most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(3)    
1. among
2. from
3. with
4. by

Correct Answer : with

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

English is not a language that (1)______ in India. But it is used extensively in (2)______country. India comes second on the list of countries (3)______most English speakers,albeit not as the first language. English is more (4)______than any single Indian language! It has managed to (5)______the entire world.

Q.11    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(4)    
1. frequented
2. extended
3. comprehensive
4. prevalent

Correct Answer :  prevalent

Comprehensio n:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

English is not a language that (1)______ in India. But it is used extensively in (2)______country. India comes second on the list of countries (3)______most English speakers,albeit not as the first language. English is more (4)______than any single Indian language! It has managed to (5)______the entire world.

Q.12    Select the most  appropriate option to fill in blank No.(5)    
1. saturate
2. pervade
3. invade
4. persuade

Correct Answer : pervade

Q.13    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

DEVOUT
1. pious
2. loyal
3. respectable
4. revered

Correct Answer : pious

Q.14    In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

Raja Ravi Varma was one of the first artist who tried to create a style that was both modern and traditional.    
1. to create a style that was
2. both modern and traditional.
3. Raja Ravi Varma was
4. one of the first artist

Correct Answer : Raja Ravi Varma was

Q.15    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

I sat ______ my life as nothing seemed to be working for me.
1. cursing
2. tormenting
3. blessing
4. invoking

Correct Answer : cursing

Q.16    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

RENOWN
1. obscurity
2. wisdom
3. conceit
4. fame

Correct Answer : fame

Q.17    Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. So, I had thoughts of setting up an Indian restaurant there with my wife's support.
B. It took us two months to redesign the place to suit our needs.
C.One of the things I really missed when I set up home in Maryland, was a restaurant that served authentic Indian food.
D.I decided to pursue this idea seriously and bought an old building in the downtown.    
1. CBAD
2. BCDA
3. CADB
4. DACB

Correct Answer : CADB

Q.18    Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

One who walks in sleep
1. pedestrian
2. philanthropist
3. omnipotent
4. somnambulist

Correct Answer : somnambulist

Q.19    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The roads at 15000 feet are not easily navigable and the air is ______ and freezing.
1. intensified
2. rarefied
3. exalted
4. elevated

Correct Answer : rarefied

 Q.20    In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

Not complying by any of the laws can land you into serious trouble.
1. can land you
2. Not complying by
3. any of the laws
4. into serious trouble

Correct Answer : Not complying by

Q.21    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

ASCENT
1. decent
2. distant
3. descent
4. depression

Correct Answer : descent

 Q.22    Select the correctly spelt word.    
1. proportion
2. proporsion
3. preportion
4. propotion

Correct Answer : proportion

Q.23    Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. Lyrics help in creating a distictive narrative, some conventions of which have been carried over from the talkies era.
B. Thus, songs have outlived films in people's memories.
C. However, songs seem to have acquired a musical grammar of their own, establishing an emotional chord with the listeners.
D. In popular Indian cinema, lyrics are to music what the heart is to the body.
1. ABCD
2. DCBA
3. DACB
4. ADBC

Correct Answer : DACB

Q.24    Select the correct active form of the given sentence. 

We were given very little time to prepare the presentation.
1. They have given us very little time to prepare the presentation.
2. They will give us very little time to prepare the presentation.
3. They give us very little time to prepare the presentation.
4. They gave us very little time to prepare the presentation.

Correct Answer : They gave us very little time to prepare the presentation.

Q.25    Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

Many people join politics to feather their own nest. 
1. utilize black money
2. make others' life comfortable
3. promote their own interest
4. serve their country

Correct Answer : promote their own interest

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SSC English By MB Publications



About Book :

Competitive examinations in India particularly for the government jobs throw surprise to the students year after year. While examinations for Banking jobs are best known for their novelty in the types of questions, SSC examinations are marked by Hovering between the unknown and the traditional. This year examinations saw a return to the ‘known’ save a few papers of CPO (Pt). in this situation, students are well-advised to go the whole hog with previously asked one word substitutions and idioms/phrases. With Synonyms and Antonyms, they are advised to be consistent (then too sticking around the previous Year’s questions) as the range is just impossible to fathom. For the rest, regular practice of the previous questions is the most reliable way forward. Ssc aspirants are expected to have a practice only of previous questions and evade models papers, they being wide of the marked by a huge margin.

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  • Publisher : M.B. Books Pvt. Ltd.; 2020th edition (1 January 2020); M.B. Books Pvt. Ltd.
  • Language : English
  • Price : 265/-
  • Paperback : 764 pages
  • ISBN-10 : 8193807235
  • ISBN-13 : 978-8193807231

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(Books) Paramount English for General Competitive Exams

 



Paramount English for General Competitive Exams



About Book :

This is an age of cut-throat competition and in order to win this race, you have to make sure that your preparation level is a cut above the rest. Considering the sheer magnitude of the aspirants who apply for government jobs, one has to make sure that one takes guidance from the best of the materials available.

We have always strived to provide you with the best study materials to make your dream of a government job a reality. This book Plinth to paramount volume-l is a boon for students preparing for SSS CGL, CPO, CHSL (10+2), MTS, CDS, NDA, Banking, CAT, XAT, MBA, Schools & Colleges, Campus Placement & Other Examination. This English book will help in taking your preparation level up by a notch. With detailed explanations, we have made sure that this book is easily comprehensible for students of all levels.

To make sure you get a perfect companion for your preparation, we have put in much effort to make sure that this book is completely error-free. Regular revision with this book as a guide will surely help you gain the edge you need, the winning edge.

I earnestly thank the Paramount Authors who worked tirelessly to ensure the-quality of the book, and also helped us detect all the typographical and other errors that might have crept in, if not for their keen overview.
Striving to serve the student community and to impart quality education.

BOOK DETAILS

  • Publisher : Paramount Coaching Centre Private Limited (1 January 2019)
  • Price : 227/-
  • Language : English
  • ISBN-10 : 8193305361
  • ISBN-13 : 978-8193305362

CLICK BELOW TO ORDER ONLINE

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-1 (General Awareness)

SSC CGL LOGO



SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 12-June-2019 Shift-1

(General Awareness)



(General Awareness)

Q.1    A substantial increase in capital expenditure or revenue deficit leads to ______.    
1. Fiscal Deficit
2. Revenue Deficit
3. Primary Deficit
4. Budgetary Deficit

Correct Answer : Fiscal Deficit

Q.2    Who was the last ruler of the Vaghela Dynasty of Gujarat after whose defeat the kingdom was passed to Alauddin Khilji?    
1. Arjuna Deva
2. Karandev
3. Rama
4. Saranga Deva

Correct Answer : Karandev

Q.3    What is the dominant chemical present in detergent powder?    
1. Hydrochloric acid
2. Sodium carbonate
3. Sodium alkyl sulphate
4. Calcium carbonate

Correct Answer : Sodium carbonate

Q.4    What was India's rank among 156 countries in the Global Happiness Index 2019?    
1. 137th
2. 124th
3. 132nd
4. 140th

Correct Answer : 140th

Q.5    What effect will a decrease in demand and an increase in supply have on equilibrium price?    
1. Equilibrium price will fall
2. Sometimes price will rise and sometimes it will fall
3. Equilibrium price will be constant
4. Equilibrium price will rise

Correct Answer : Equilibrium price will fall

Q.6    Which of the following is the highest     mountain peak in Maharashtra?    
1. Anjaneri
2. Salher
3. Taramati
4. Kalsubai Shikhar

Correct Answer : Kalsubai Shikhar

Q.7    In the year _________, the Maratha Empire ceased to exist with the surrender of the Marathas to the British, ending the Third Anglo-Maratha War.    
1. 1806
2. 1792
3. 1811
4. 1818

Correct Answer : 1818

Q.8    Which state of India has the longest mainland coastline?    
1. Odisha
2. Kerala
3. Maharashtra
4. Gujarat

Correct Answer :  Gujarat

Q.9    Which Indian badminton player was runner- up at the 2019 Swiss Open tournament?
1. Parupalli Kashyap
2. Sai Praneeth
3. Kidambi Srikanth
4. Chetan Anand

Correct Answer : Sai Praneeth

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

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Crash Course for SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam

Study Kit for SSC CGL EXAM

Q.10    Dashain' is the grandest festival of ______.    
1. Sri Lanka
2. Bangladesh
3. Nepal
4. Bhutan

Correct Answer : Nepal

Q.11    Which Indian batsman was the first to hit six consecutive sixes in first-class cricket?    
1. Sachin Tendulkar
2. Ravi Shastri
3. Sunil Gavaskar
4. Virat Kohli

Correct Answer : Ravi Shastri

Q.12    To which of the following Indian  states does the tribe of 'Nyishi' belong?    
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Bihar
4. Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Answer : Arunachal Pradesh

Q.13    _____ has been established as the annual 'International Day of Happiness'.    
1. 15th January
2. 23rd February
3. 31st March
4. 20th March

Correct Answer : 20th March

Q.14    Which of the following Indian film-makers was given the title of 'Ambassador of Interlaken' in 2011 at Switzerland?    
1. Subhash Ghai
2. Yash Johar
3. Raj Kapoor
4. Yash Chopra

Correct Answer : Yash Chopra

Q.15    Which of the following is called the 'popular chamber'?    
1. Lok Sabha
2. State Assembly
3. Rajya Sabha
4. Gram Sabha

Correct Answer : Lok Sabha

Q.16    Who is the author of the book 'India Shastra: Reflections on the Nation in our Time'?    
1. Shashi Tharoor
2. Manmohan Singh
3. A P J Abdul Kalam
4. Narendra Modi

Correct Answer : Shashi Tharoor

Q.17    Which of the following countries is the largest producer of wheat in the world?    
1. Bangladesh
2. India
3. Myanmar (Burma)
4. China

Correct Answer : China

Q.18    During World War II, the Battles of Kohima  and Imphal were fought in the year _____.    
1. 1944
2. 1943
3. 1942
4. 1945

Correct Answer : 1944

Q.19    Name the tissue that transports food to various parts of a plant.    
1. Sclerenchyma
2. Parenchyma
3. Phloem
4. Xylem

Correct Answer : Phloem

Q.20    _____ is well-known for the golden beautification of the Harmandir Sahib Gurdwara in Amritsar, famously known as the Golden Temple.    
1. Charat Singh
2. Maha Singh
3. Ranjit Singh
4. Duleep Singh

Correct Answer : Ranjit Singh

Q.21    Rajat has hypermetropia. What type of lens will the ophthalmologist recommend to correct his vision?    
1. Progressive
2. Bifocal
3. Convex
4. Concave

Correct Answer : Convex

Q.22    The term 'Dolphin Kick' is associated with which sport?    
1. Cricket
2. Football
3. Swimming
4. Rugby

Correct Answer : Swimming

Q.23    Which article of the Constitution of India provides that each Indian state will have a governor?    
1. Article 154
2. Article 153
3. Article 152
4. Article 151

Correct Answer : Article 153

Q.24    What is the distinctive characteristic of 'marsupials'?    
1. They migrate from one place to another
2. They hibernate in winter
3. They carry young ones in pouches
4. They lay eggs

Correct Answer : They carry young ones in pouches

Q.25    Blue litmus paper turns ____ on contact with an acidic solution.    
1. red
2. yellow
3. green
4. brown

Correct Answer : red

(E-Book) SSC CGL (Tier-1) Exam Question Papers PDF with Ans Download

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(Books) SSC CGL English Question Bank Solved Paper By Kiran

 



SSC CGL English Question Bank Solved Paper By Kiran



About Book :

Kiran SSC English language Chapterwise Solved Papers 14000+ objective questions (English Medium) (3085) 1. Common errors - total question- 1586 (1282+304*) 2. Improvement of Sentence - total question- 1797 (1486+311*) 3. Transformation of Sentences (active/ passive) - total question- 811 (667+144*) 4. Direct/ indirect speech - total question- 850 (724+126*) 5. Fill in the blanks - total question-1400 (1075+325*) 6. Synonyms - total question-1061 (813+248*) 7. Antonyms - total question-1043 (802+241*) 8. One word Substitution - total question-1185 (950+235*) 9. Idioms/ phrases - total question- 1126 (910+216*) 10. Selection of MIS spelt word/ correctly spelt word - total question-987 (747+240*) 11. Arrangement of Sentences - total question- 935 (742+193*) 12. Cloze Test - total question-2220 (1745+475*) 13. Comprehension test - total question- 1777 (1337+440*) grand total no of question – 16778 (13280+3498*) * online practice question available kicx.In.

BOOK DETAILS

  • Publisher : Kiran Institute of Career Excellence Pvt Ltd (KICX); 2020th edition (20 August 2020); 9205393696
  • Language : English
  • Price : 425/-
  • Paperback : 1048 pages
  • ISBN-10 : 9390285186
  • ISBN-13 : 978-9390285181

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(Result) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination, 2018 (Tier-2)

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-CHSL-LOGO.gif



(Result) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination, 2018 (Tier-2)



Staff Selection Commission conducted the Tier-ll(Descriptive paper) of the Combined Higher Secondary (O+2) Level Examination, 2O1g on 29.0g.201g for recruitment to the posts of Postal Assistant, Sorting Assistant, Junior Secretariat Assistant, DEO, LDC, etc.

2. Based on the cut-off fixed by the Commission, 37 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for DEST for the posts of DEO in Departments other than C&AG, 1741 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for DEST fof the post of DEO in C&AG and 30822 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for Typing Test for the posts of PostalAssistant, Sorting Assistant, Junior Secretariat Assistant, LDC, etc. 

List-I - Candidates Qualified for DEST for the Post of DEO (Other Than C&AG) :

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PWD

Total

Cut-off Marks (Tier I+Tier II)

252.06

#

#

243.43

# # # # # #

--

Candidates Available

22

01 01 13 -

-

-

-

-

-

37

*ln addition to the UR candidates mentioned above, 01 SC, 01 ST and 06 OBC candidates qualified at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

#No vacancy avaitable.

List-II - Candidates Qualified for DEST for the Post of DEO in C&AG :

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PWD

Total

Cut-off Marks (Tier I+Tier II)

223.60

181.48 185.15 210.09 215.89 152.55 184.41 148.04

#

#

--

CandidatesAvailable

299*

270

158

542

221

168

43

39

01

-

1741

*ln addition to the UR Sandidates rlentioned above, 35 SC, 08 ST, 339 OBC, 155 EWS, 03 OH and 01 VH candidates qualified at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories. 

#No vacancy avaitable.

List-III - Candidates Qualified for Typing Test for the post of PA,SA,JSA,LDC etc :

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

OtherPWD

Total

Cut-off Marks (Tier I+Tier II) 190.33 143.93 133.80

167.07

161.31 97.82 139.36 93.50 123.54 93.07

 

Candidates Available

5576* 5171 2878 7838

4681

3368

425

358

411

116

30822

*ln addition to the UR candidates mentioned above, .1326 sc, 445 sr, 6g16 oBC,3507 EWS, 50 ESM, 63 OH, 02 HH and 50 VH candidates qualified at UR standard have beeh shown under their respective categories. 
Note: Only those candidates haue been consid.ered" fof the post of DEO in C&AG, who haue confirmed in their application forms that theg possess de sired educational quatification for the p o st.

3. The schedule for holding the Data Entry Speed TesUTyping Test on computer will be made available on commission's Regional offices website shorily.

4' As per para 13.7-6.7 of the Notice of the Examination, Persons with Disabilities candidates who ilaim to be permanently unfit to take the Typing Test because of a physical disability have to submit requisite Medical Certificate to the Commission at their scheduled time of Skill Test. Exemption from the Typing Test will be granted on the basis of merit of the case.

Click here to Download SSC CHSL 2018 Paper - II Result Write up

Click here to Download SSC CHSL 2018 Paper - II Result  List I

Click here to Download SSC CHSL 2018 Paper - II Result  List II

Click here to Download SSC CHSL 2018 Paper - II Result List III

Click Here to Buy Study Kit for SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam

Courtesy: SSC

General: 

(Cut off) SSC CHSL (10+2) Cut off - 2018  (Tier-II)

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-CHSL-LOGO.gif



(Cut off) SSC CHSL (10+2) Cut off - 2018  (Tier-II)



Staff Selection Commission conducted the Tier-ll(Descriptive paper) of the Combined Higher Secondary (O+2) Level Examination, 2O1g on 29.0g.201g for recruitment to the posts of Postal Assistant, Sorting Assistant, Junior Secretariat Assistant, DEO, LDC, etc.

2. Based on the cut-off fixed by the Commission, 37 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for DEST for the posts of DEO in Departments other than C&AG, 1741 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for DEST fof the post of DEO in C&AG and 30822 candidates have qualified (provisionally) for Typing Test for the posts of PostalAssistant, Sorting Assistant, Junior Secretariat Assistant, LDC, etc. 

List-I - Candidates Qualified for DEST for the Post of DEO (Other Than C&AG) :

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PWD

Total

Cut-off Marks (Tier I+Tier II)

252.06

#

#

243.43

# # # # # #

--

Candidates Available

22

01 01 13 -

-

-

-

-

-

37

*ln addition to the UR candidates mentioned above, 01 SC, 01 ST and 06 OBC candidates qualified at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories.

#No vacancy avaitable.

List-II - Candidates Qualified for DEST for the Post of DEO in C&AG :

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

Other PWD

Total

Cut-off Marks (Tier I+Tier II)

223.60

181.48 185.15 210.09 215.89 152.55 184.41 148.04

#

#

--

CandidatesAvailable

299*

270

158

542

221

168

43

39

01

-

1741

*ln addition to the UR Sandidates rlentioned above, 35 SC, 08 ST, 339 OBC, 155 EWS, 03 OH and 01 VH candidates qualified at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories. 

#No vacancy avaitable.

List-III - Candidates Qualified for Typing Test for the post of PA,SA,JSA,LDC etc :

 

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

OtherPWD

Total

Cut-off Marks (Tier I+Tier II) 190.33 143.93 133.80

167.07

161.31 97.82 139.36 93.50 123.54 93.07

 

Candidates Available

5576* 5171 2878 7838

4681

3368

425

358

411

116

30822

*ln addition to the UR candidates mentioned above, .1326 sc, 445 sr, 6g16 oBC,3507 EWS, 50 ESM, 63 OH, 02 HH and 50 VH candidates qualified at UR standard have beeh shown under their respective categories. 
Note: Only those candidates haue been consid.ered" fof the post of DEO in C&AG, who haue confirmed in their application forms that theg possess de sired educational quatification for the p o st.

3. The schedule for holding the Data Entry Speed TesUTyping Test on computer will be made available on commission's Regional offices website shorily.

4' As per para 13.7-6.7 of the Notice of the Examination, Persons with Disabilities candidates who ilaim to be permanently unfit to take the Typing Test because of a physical disability have to submit requisite Medical Certificate to the Commission at their scheduled time of Skill Test. Exemption from the Typing Test will be granted on the basis of merit of the case.

Click here for Official Cut off

Study Kit for SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

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Courtesy : SSC

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