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(Notification) SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Exam - 2024


(Notification) SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Exam - 2024



F. No. HQ-C11018/1/2024-C-1: Staff Selection Commission will hold Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2024 for filling up of various Group ‘B’ and Group ‘C’ posts in different Ministries/ Departments/ Organizations of Government of India and various Constitutional Bodies/ Statutory Bodies/ Tribunals, etc. The details of the examination are as follows: 

Details of the Posts:

Followings are the likely posts that will be filled up through this Examination:

2.1 Pay Level-7 (Rs. 44900 to 142400):

S.No.

Name of Post

Ministry/Department/Office/Cadre

Classification of Post

Age Limit

1

Assistant Section Officer

Central Secretariat Service

Group “B”

20-30 years

2

Assistant Section Officer

Intelligence Bureau

Group “B”

18-30 years

3

Assistant Section Officer

Ministry of Railways

Group “B”

20-30 years

4

Assistant Section Officer

Ministry of External Affairs

Group “B”

20-30 years

5

Assistant Section Officer

AFHQ

Group “B”

20-30 years

6

Assistant Section Officer

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Group “B”

18-30 years

7

Assistant /Assistant Section Officer

Other Ministries/ Departments/Organizations

Group “B”

18-30 years

8

Inspector of Income Tax

CBDT

Group “C”

18-30 years

9

Inspector, (Central Excise)

CBIC

Group “B”

18-30 years

10

Inspector (Preventive Officer)

11

Inspector (Examiner)

12

Assistant Enforcement Officer

Directorate of Enforcement, Department of Revenue

Group “B”

18-30 years

13

Sub Inspector

Central Bureau of Investigation

Group “B”

20-30 years

14

Inspector Posts

Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications

Group “B”

18-30 years

15

Inspector

Central Bureau of Narcotics,Ministry of Finance

Group “B”

18-30 years

2.2 Pay Level-6 (Rs. 35400 to 112400):

16

Assistant / Assistant Section Officer

Other Ministries/ Departments/Organizations

Group “B”

18-30 years

17

Executive Assistant

CBIC

Group “B”

18-30 years

18

Research Assistant

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)

Group “B”

18-30 years

19

Divisional Accountant

Offices under C&AG

Group “B”

18-30 years

20

Sub Inspector

National Investigation Agency (NIA)

Group “B”

18-30 years

21

Sub-Inspector/ Junior Intelligence Officer

Narcotics Control Bureau (MHA)

Group “B”

18-30 years

22

Junior Statistical Officer

Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation.

Group “B”

18-32 years

2.3 Pay Level-5 (Rs. 29200 to 92300):

23

Auditor

Offices under C&AG

Group “C”

18-27 years

24

Auditor

Offices under CGDA

Group “C”

18-27 years

25

Auditor

Other Ministry/ Departments

Group “C”

18-27 years

26

Accountant

Offices under C&AG

Group “C”

18-27 years

27

Accountant

Controller General of Accounts

Group “C”

18-27 years

28

Accountant/Junior Accountant

Other Ministry/ Departments

Group “C”

18-27 years

2.4 Pay Level-4 (₹ 25500 to 81100):

29

Postal Assistant/ Sorting Assistant

Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications

Group “C”

18-27 years

30

Senior Secretariat Assistant/  Upper Division Clerks

Central Govt. Offices/ Ministries other than CSCS cadres.

Group “C”

18-27 years

31

Senior Administrative Assistant

Military Engineering Services,Ministry of Defence

Group “C”

18-27 years

32

Tax Assistant

CBDT

Group “C”

18-27 years

33

Tax Assistant

CBIC

Group “C”

18-27 years

34

Sub-Inspector

Central Bureau of Narcotics,Ministry of Finance

Group “C”

18-27 years

Study Material for Combined Graduate Level Examination

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION : ( As on 01-08-2024)

Junior Statistical Officer:

  • Bachelor’s Degree in any subject from a recognized University or Institute with at least 60% Marks in Mathematics at 12th standard level;Or Bachelor’s Degree in any subject with Statistics as one of the subjects at degree level.

Statistical Investigator Grade-II:

  • Bachelor’s Degree in any subject with Statistics as one of the subjects from a recognized University or Institute. The candidates must have studied Statistics as a subject in all the three years or all the 6 semesters of the graduation course. 

Research Assistant in National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):

Essential Qualifications: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or Institute.

Desirable Qualifications:

  • Minimum one-year research experience in any recognized university or recognized Research Institution;
  • Degree in Law or Human Rights from a recognized university.

All other Posts:

  • Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or equivalent.
  • The candidates who have appeared in their final year of their graduation can also apply, however they must possess Essential qualification on or before the cut-off date i.e. 01-08-2024.

AGE LIMIT (As on 01-08-2024):

Requirement of age for various posts is as follows:

S No

Age Limit

Remarks

(i)

For the posts for which age limit is 18-27 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier than 02-08-1997 and not later than 01-08-2006.

(ii)

For the posts for which age limit is 20-30 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier than 02-08-1994 and not later than 01-08-2004.

(iii)

For the posts for which age limit is 18-30 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier than 02-08-1994 and not later than 01-08-2006.

(iv)

For the posts for which age limit is 18-32 years

Candidate must have been born not earlier than 02-08-1992 and not later than 01-08-2006.

Permissible relaxation in upper age limit and category-codes for claiming age relaxation are as follows:

Code No

Category

Age-relaxation  permissible beyond upper age limit

01

SC/ST

5 years

02

OBC

3 years

03

PwD (Unreserved)

10 years

04

PwD (OBC)

13 years

05

PwD (SC/ST)

15 years

06

Ex-Servicemen (ESM)

3 years after deduction of the military service rendered from the   actual   age   as   on   the closing date.

08

Defence   Personnel   disabled   in   operation during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof

3 years

09

Defence   Personnel   disabled   in   operation during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof  (SC/ST)

8 years

Additional permissible relaxation in upper age limit for Group ‘C’ posts

10

Central Govt. Civilian Employees who have rendered not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on closing date for receipt of application.

Upto 40 years of age

11

Central   Govt.   Civilian   Employees(SC/ST) who  have  rendered  not  less  than  3  years regular and continuous service as on closing date for receipt of application.

Upto 45 years of age

12

Widows/  Divorced  Women/  Women judicially  separated  and  who  are  not remarried.

Up to 35 years of age

13

Widows/  Divorced  Women/  Women judicially  separated  and  who  are  not remarried (SC/ST).

Up to 40 years of age

Exam Syllabus And Scheme of The Examination :

13.9.1 Tier-I: General Intelligence & Reasoning: It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/Number Analogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/ pattern- folding& un-folding, Figural Pattern-folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence. 

13.9.2 General Awareness: Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates’ general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography,Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research. 

13.9.3 Quantitative Aptitude: The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart. 

13.9.4 English Comprehension: Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested.

13.9.5 The questions in Parts A, B, & D will be of a level commensurate with the essential qualification viz. Graduation and questions in Part-C will be of 10th standard level.

13.10 Indicative Syllabus (Tier-II):

13.10.1 Module-I of Session-I of Paper-I (Mathematical Abilities):

13.10.1.1 Number Systems: Computation of Whole Number, Decimal and Fractions, Relationship between numbers. 

13.10.1.2 Fundamental arithmetical operations: Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest (Simple and Compound), Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time and work.

13.10.1.3 Algebra: Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra and Elementary surds (simple problems) and Graphs of Linear Equations.

13.10.1.4 Geometry: Familiarity with elementary geometric figures and facts: 

Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles. 

13.10.1.5 Mensuration: Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square Base.

13.10.1.6 Trigonometry: Trigonometry, Trigonometric ratios, Complementary angles, Height and distances (simple problems only) Standard Identities like sin2� + cos2�=1 etc.

13.10.1.7 Statistics and probability: Use of Tables and Graphs: Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar-diagram, Pie-chart; Measures of central 

tendency: mean, median, mode, standard deviation; calculation of simple probabilities.

13.10.2 Module-II of Section-I of Paper-I (Reasoning and General Intelligence):

13.10.2.1 Questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. These will include questions on Semantic Analogy, Symbolic operations, Symbolic/ Number Analogy, Trends, Figural Analogy, Space Orientation, Semantic Classification, Venn Diagrams, Symbolic/ Number Classification, Drawing inferences, Figural Classification, Punched hole/ pattern-folding & unfolding, Semantic Series, Figural Patternfolding and completion, Number Series, Embedded figures, Figural Series, Critical Thinking, Problem Solving, Emotional Intelligence, Word Building, Social Intelligence, Coding and de-coding, Numerical operations, Other sub-topics, if any. 

13.10.3  Module-I of Section-II of Paper-I (English Language And Comprehension):

13.10.3.1 Vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and their correct usage; Spot the Error, Fill in the Blanks, Synonyms/ Homonyms, Antonyms, Spellings/ Detecting mis-spelt words, Idioms & Phrases, One word substitution, Improvement of Sentences, Active/ Passive Voice of Verbs, Conversion into Direct/ Indirect narration, Shuffling of Sentence parts, Shuffling of Sentences in a passage, Cloze Passage, Comprehension Passage. To test comprehension, three or more paragraphs will be given and questions based on those will be asked. At least one paragraph should be a simple one based on a book or a story and the other two paragraphs should be on current affairs, based on a report or an editorial. 

13.10.4 Module-II of Section-II of Paper-I  (General Awareness):

13.10.4.1 Questions are designed to test the candidates’ general awareness of the environment around them and its application to society. Questions are also designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General policy and scientific research. 

13.10.5 Module-I of Section-III of Paper- I (Computer Proficiency): 

13.10.5.1 Computer Basics: Organization of a computer, Central Processing Unit (CPU), input/ output devices, computer memory, memory organization, back- up devices, PORTs, Windows Explorer. Keyboard shortcuts.

13.10.5.2 Software: Windows Operating system including basics of Microsoft Office like MS word, MS Excel and Power Point etc..

13.10.5.3 Working with Internet and e-mails: Web Browsing & Searching,Downloading & Uploading, Managing an E-mail Account, e-Banking.

13.10.5.4 Basics of networking and cyber security: Networking devices and protocols, Network and information security threats (like hacking, virus, worms, Trojan etc.) and preventive measures.

13.10.6 Paper-II (Statistics):

13.10.6.1 Collection, Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data –Primary and Secondary data, Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions; Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions. 
13.10.6.2 Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency – mean median and mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.

13.10.6.3 Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion – range,quartile deviations, mean deviation and standard deviation; Measures of relative dispersion.

13.10.6.4 Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis – Different types of moments and their relationship; meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.

13.10.6.5 Correlation and Regression – Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression lines; Spearman’s rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression; Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only). 

13.10.6.6 Probability Theory – Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability; Conditional probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes’ theorem.

13.10.6.7 Random Variable and Probability Distributions – Random variable; Probability functions; Expectation and Variance of a random variable; Higher moments of a random variable; Binomial, Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint distribution of two random variable (discrete).

13.10.6.8 Sampling Theory – Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and non-sampling errors; Probability and nonprobability sampling techniques (simple random sampling, stratified sampling, multistage sampling, multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling, convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement only); Sample size decisions. 

13.10.6.9 Statistical Inference - Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator, Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests, Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals. 

13.10.6.10 Analysis of Variance - Analysis of one-way classified data and twoway classified data.

13.10.6.11 Time Series Analysis - Components of time series, Determinations of trend component by different methods, Measurement of seasonal variation by different methods.

13.10.6.12 Index Numbers - Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers, Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers.

Scheme of Tier-I Examinations:

Tier

Subject

Number of Questions

Maximum Marks

Time allowed

I

A.  General Intelligence and Reasoning

25

50

 

60 Minutes

(1 hour and 20 minutes for the candidates who are allowed use of scribe as per Para-7.1 and 7.2)

B.  General Awareness

25

50

C.  Quantitative Aptitude

25

50

D.  English Comprehension

25

50

Scheme of Tier-II Examinations :

Tier

Paper

Session

Subject

Number of Questions

Maximum Marks

Time allowed

 

 

 

 

 

 

II

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Paper-I:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Session-I (2 hours

and 15 minutes)

Section-I:

Module-I: MathematicalAbilities

Module-II: Reasoning and General Intelligence.

30

 

         30 

Total = 60

   

Section-II:

Module-I: English Language and  Comprehension

Module-II: General Awareness

 

45

25

 

Total = 70

 

Section-III:

Module-I: Computer Knowledge Module

 

20

   

Session-II 

(15 minutes)

Section-III:

Module-II: Data Entry Speed Test Module

One Data Entry Task

 

 

-

Paper-II

Statistics

100

100*2= 200

2 hours (for each Paper)

(2 hours and 40 minutes for the candidates eligible for scribe as per Para-7.1 and 7.2)

Paper-III

General Studies (Finance and Economics)

100

100*2 = 200

Scheme of Tier-III Examination:

Tier

Mode of Examination

Scheme of Examination

Maximum Marks

Time Allowed

III

Pen and Paper mode

Descriptive Paper in English or Hindi (Writing of Essay/ Precis/ Letter/  Application etc.)

100

60 Minutes

(1 hour and 20 minutes for the candidates who are allowed use of scribe as per Para-7.1 and 7.2)

The Paper in Tier-III will have to be written either in Hindi or in English. Part paper written in Hindi and part in English will be awarded zero marks.

In Tier-III, candidates must write their correct Roll Number at the prescribed places on the cover page of the Answer Book. Candidates must also affix signature and Left-hand Thumb Impression in the relevant columns in the Answer Book. Answer Books not bearing Roll Number, Signature and Left-hand Thumb Impression shall be awarded zero marks. 

Candidates are strictly advised not to write any personal identity e.g. name, roll number, mobile number, address, etc inside the Answer Book (TierIII). The candidates who fail to adhere to these instructions will be awarded zero marks even if marks are awarded during the evaluation process.

Application Fee:

Fee payable: Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only).

Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), Persons with Disability (PwD) and Ex-servicemen (ESM) eligible for reservation are exempted from payment of fee.

How to Apply:

The applications must be submitted through online mode only. For detailed instructions on filling online application, please refer to Annexure-III and Annexure-IV

Important Dates:

Dates for submission of online applications

24-06-2024  to 24-07-2024

Last date and time for receipt of online applications

24-07-2024 (23:00)

Last date and time for making online fee payment

25-07-2024 (23:00)

Dates of ‘Window for Application Form Correction’ including online payment.

10-08-2024 to 11-08-2024(23:00)

Tentative Schedule of Tier-I (Computer Based Examination)

Sep-Oct, 2024

Tentative Schedule of Tier-II (Computer Based Examination)

December, 2024

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Age Eligibility Calculator FOR SSC CGL, CHSL, MTS Exam Online

Study Material for Combined Graduate Level Examination

SSC CGL EXAM: 

(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Awareness)

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg

(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Awareness)

QID : 51 - Preliminary expenses are the examples of ________.

Options:
1) Capital expenditure
2) Capital gain
3) revenue expenditure
4) deferred revenue expenditure
Correct Answer: Capital expenditure
 
QID : 52 - Which economic activity cannot be included in the tertiary sector?

Options:
1) Working in a call-centre
2) Tuition occupation
3) Bee-keeping
4) Banking
Correct Answer: Bee-keeping

QID : 53 - Which of the following statement is true for the Public Sector Unit?

Options:
1) Most of assets is owned by a group of people
2) Most of assets is owned by big companies
3) Most of assets is owned by government
4) Most of assets is owned by an individual
Correct Answer: Most of assets is owned by government

QID : 54 - The percentage of India's population in the total population of the world as per 2011 census is: _______.

Options:
1) 17.5%
2) 18.01%
3) 19.35%
4) 20.25%
Correct Answer: 17.5%
 
QID : 55 - Which of the following five year plan of India recognized human development as the core of development efforts?

Options:
1) Eighth five year plan
2) Ninth five year plan
3) Tenth five year plan
4) Eleventh five year plan
Correct Answer: Eighth five year plan
 
QID : 56 - Which of the following thinker is associated with "the concept of political sovereignty"?

Options:
1) MacIver
2) Socrates
3) Rousseau
4) Plato
Correct Answer: Rousseau

QID : 57 - Who said, "A good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state"?

Options:
1) Plato
2) Aristotle
3) G. B. Shaw
4) Rousseau
Correct Answer: Aristotle
 
QID : 58 - Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is a/an _________.

Options:
1) Advisory Body
2) Coordinating Authority only
3) Supervisory Authority only
4) Administrative Authority
Correct Answer: Administrative Authority

QID : 59 - According to Indian Constitution, who decides the salary of members of Parliament?

Options:
1) Union Council of Ministers
2) Parliament
3) Supreme Court
4) President of India
Correct Answer: Parliament
 
QID : 60 - Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Options:
1) Eighth Schedule : Languages
2) Second Schedule : Form of Oath of office
3) Fourth Schedule : Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
4) Tenth Schedule : Defection related provisions
Correct Answer: Second Schedule : Form of Oath of office

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General: 

(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Intelligence & Reasoning)

https://sscportal.in/sites/default/files/SSC-JE-LOGO.jpeg

(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift

(General Intelligence & Reasoning)

QID : 1 - In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Rain : Clouds : : ? : ?

Options:
1) Rice : Food
2) Grey : Colour
3) Heat : Sun
4) Snow : Mountains
Correct Answer: Heat : Sun
 
QID : 2 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Cactus : Plant : : Rice : ?

Options:
1) Basmati
2) Crop
3) White
4) Rabi
Correct Answer: Crop

QID : 3 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Pink : Colour : : Eagle : ?

Options:
1) Black
2) Symbol
3) Bird
4) Sky
Correct Answer: Bird
 
QID : 4 - In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.

TOM : NIG : : ? : ?

Options:
1) EAT : YUN

2) EAT : XXM

3) FAT : LMV

4) EAT : ZXC
Correct Answer: EAT : YUN
 
QID : 5 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

LERI : PJVN : : MONT : ?

Options:
1) WRTY

2) QTRY

3) RITY

4) RQYB
Correct Answer: QTRY
 
QID : 6 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

SAT : WEX : : MET : ?

Options:
1) AQI

2) IYX

3) FHY

4) QIX
Correct Answer: QIX
 
QID : 7 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

43 : 7 : : 23 : ?

Options:
1) 6

2) 4

3) 7

4) 5
Correct Answer: 5
 
QID : 8 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

38 : 53 : : 53 : ?

Options:
1) 72

2) 68

3) 79

4) 87
Correct Answer: 68

QID : 9 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

9 : 81 : : 11 : ?

Options:
1) 78

2) 93

3) 121

4) 146
Correct Answer: 121
 
QID : 10 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Options:
1) Goggle
2) Purse
3) Accessories
4) Belt
Correct Answer: Accessories

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DOWNLOAD SSC J.E. SOLVED Question Papers PDF

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Study Material for Junior Engineer (Civil / Electrical / Mechanical Engineering) Examination

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General: 

एस.एस.सी. कनिष्ठ अभियन्ता परीक्षा पेपर 2018 "22 जनवरी 2018" सुबह की पाली (सामान्य अभियांत्रिकी ) SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Engineering)



एस.एस.सी. कनिष्ठ अभियन्ता परीक्षा पेपर 2018 "22 जनवरी 2018" सुबह की पाली (सामान्य अभियांत्रिकी) SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (General Engineering)



QID : 101 - निम्नलिखित में से कोन सी संदलन सामर्थ्य इमारतों के निर्माण में उपयोग किये जाने वाले अच्छी गुणवत्ता के पत्थर को दर्शाती है?
Options:
1) 20 से कम
2) 20 से 60
3) 60 से 80
4) 100 से अधिक
Correct Answer:  100 से अधिक
 
QID :
102 - निम्नलिखित में से कोन सी जांच लकड़ी की उम्र निर्धारित करने के लिए की जाती है?
Options:
1) कुंडलाकार रिंग (अन्युलर रिंग)
2) सैपवुड
3) शक्ति
4) लकड़ी की त्रुटियाँ
Correct Answer: कुंडलाकार रिंग (अन्युलर रिंग)
 
QID : 103 - निम्नलिखित में से किसका निर्धारण ली चेटेलियर (Le Chatelier) के उपकरण के प्रयोग से किया जाता है?
Options:
1) घर्षण प्रतिरोध
2) रासायनिक प्रतिरोध
3) द्रढ़ता
4) मजबूती
Correct Answer: द्रढ़ता
 
QID : 104 - जलग्रस्त क्षेत्रो में निर्माण कार्यों के लिए उपयोग की जाने वाली मोर्टार का प्रकार है ____________
Options:
1) सीमेंट मोर्टार
2) लूज मोर्टार
3) बहुत कम स्थिरता का मोर्टार
4) उच्च w/c अनुपात का मोर्टार
Correct Answer: सीमेंट मोर्टार
 
QID : 105 - M 25 ग्रेड कंक्रीट के लिए, इसकी प्रतिशत संपीडन सामर्थ्य के सन्दर्भ में विभाजित तन्यता शक्ति _____ है|
Options:
1) 7 से 11%
2) 18 से 28%
3) 28 से 38%
4) 38 से 48%
Correct Answer: 7 से 11%
 
QID : 106 - आमतोर पर डिस्टेंपर को ________ के लेप के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है|
Options:
1) कंपाउंड वाल
2) बाहरी कंक्रीट सतह
3) आन्तरिक सतह जो पर्यावरण के संपर्क में नहीं होती है
4) लकड़ी के कार्य
Correct Answer: आन्तरिक सतह जो पर्यावरण के संपर्क में नहीं होती है
 
QID : 107 - निम्नलिखित में से कोन सीमेंट में रिटायडर के रूप में इस्तेमाल किया जाता है?
Options:
1) कैल्सियम सल्फेट
2) जिप्सम
3) पोटैशियम कार्बाइड
4) सोडियम क्लोराइड
Correct Answer: जिप्सम
 
QID : 108 - ओपीसी(OPC) की जलयोजन(हाइड्रेशन) प्रक्रिया में, सभी रासायनिक प्रतिक्रियाओं को पूर्ण करने के लिए _____ (सीमेंट के प्रतिशत के रूप में) पानी की आवश्यकता है|
Options:
1) 5 से 8%
2) 8 से 16%
3) 20 से 25%
4) 35 से 45%
Correct Answer: 20 से 25%
 
QID : 109 - अवपात परिक्षण (स्लंप टेस्ट) _______ की जांच के लिए किया जाता है|
Options:
1) सीमेंट में पानी की उपस्थिति
2) कंक्रीट सामग्री के अनुपात
3) ताप प्रतिरोध
4) कंक्रीट की व्यवहार्यता (वर्केविलिटी)
Correct Answer: कंक्रीट की व्यवहार्यता (वर्केविलिटी)
 
QID : 110 - प्लाईवुड के कम विस्तार और सिकुडन का कारण _______ है|
Options:
1) प्लाई एक दुसरे से समकोण पर रखी जाती हैं
2) वे उच्च दबाव के तहत जुड़े हुए होते हैं
3) वे चिपकने वाले पदार्थ की मदद से इस स्थिति में आयोजित हैं
4) वे तहदार लकड़ी से तैयार किये गए हैं
Correct Answer: प्लाई एक दुसरे से समकोण पर रखी जाती हैं

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift (Civil Engineering)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 22 Jan 2018" Morning Shift

(Civil Engineering)

QID : 101 - Which of the following represent the crushing strength (MPa) for the good quality stone that are used in the construction of buildings?

Options:
1) Less than 20
2) 20 to 60
3) 60 to 80
4) Greater than 100
Correct Answer: Greater than 100
 
QID : 102 - Which of the following is examined to determine the age of timber?

Options:
1) Annular ring
2) Sapwood
3) Pith
4) Timber defects
Correct Answer: Annular ring
 
QID : 103 - Which of the following is determined with the help of Le Chatelier’s device?

Options:
1) Abrasion resistance
2) Chemical resistance
3) Soundness
4) Strength
Correct Answer: Soundness

QID : 104 - The type of mortar which is used for the construction works carried out in water-logged area is _____.

Options:
1) cement mortar
2) loose mortar
3) mortar of very low consistency
4) mortar having high w/c ratio
Correct Answer: cement mortar

QID : 105 - For M 25 grade concrete, the split tensile strength in terms of percentage of its compressive strength is _____.

Options:
1) 7 to 11%
2) 18 to 28%
3) 28 to 38%
4) 38 to 48%
Correct Answer: 7 to 11%

QID : 106 - Distempers are generally used to coat _____.

Options:
1) compound wall
2) external concrete surfaces
3) interior surface which are not exposed to environment
4) wood works
Correct Answer: interior surface which are not exposed to environment

QID : 107 - Which of the following is commonly used as retarder in cement?

Options:
1) Calcium sulphate
2) Gypsum
3) Potassium carbide
4) Sodium chloride
Correct Answer: Gypsum
 
QID : 108 - In the process of hydration of OPC, to complete all chemical reaction, the water requirement (expressed as the percentage of cement) is _____.

Options:
1) 5 to 8%
2) 8 to 16%
3) 20 to 25%
4) 35 to 45%
Correct Answer: 20 to 25%

QID : 109 - The slump test is performed to check the _____.

Options:
1) presence of water in cement
2) ratio of concrete ingredients
3) temperature resistance
4) workability of concrete
Correct Answer: workability of concrete

QID : 110 - The reason behind the low expansion and shrinkage of the plywood is _____.

Options:
1) plies are placed at the right angles with each other
2) they are glued under the high pressure
3) they are held in the position with the help of adhesives
4) they are prepared with the help of veneers
Correct Answer: plies are placed at the right angles with each other

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(Final Result) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination, 2023

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(Final Result) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination, 2023



Result of Tier-I of Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination, 2023 was declared by the Commission on 27.09.2023 wherein 17495 candidates were shortlisted in List-I for LDC/JSA, 754 candidates in List-II for DEO (CAG & DCA) and 1307 candidates in List-III for the post of DEO (other than CAG & DCA). Subsequently, Additional result of Tier-I was declared on 12.12.2023, wherein 145 candidates [List I - LDC/JSA - 140 candidates; List II - DEO (CAG & DCA) - 01 candidate and List IIIDEO (other than CAG & DCA)- 04 candidates] were shortlisted for appearing in Tier-II. 

2. Tier-II examination was conducted on 02.11.2023 and 10.01.2024. Accordingly, 14,548 candidates shortlisted for the post of LDC /JSA /JPA appeared in Typing Test of Tier-II and 1679 candidates shortlisted for the post of DEOs appeared in DEST.

3. As per Para 17.7 of the Notice of Examination, Section-III, Module-I i.e. Computer Knowledge Test (CKT) and Module-II i.e. Data Entry Speed Test (DEST)/ Typing Test are of qualifying nature.

4. As per Para 17.8 and 17.9 of the Notice of the Examination, Option-cum-preference has been taken online from the candidates who appeared in Tier-II of CHSLE 2023 from 13.02.2024 to 18.02.2024. 11,467 candidates who have submitted their preferences online have been considered for further selection process.

5. As per Para 17.1 of the Notice of the Examination, minimum qualifying marks in Section-I, Section-II & Module-I of Section-III of Tier-II Examination are as follows: -
i. UR : 30%
ii. OBC/ EWS : 25%
iii. All other categories : 20%

6. As per the Para 17.10 of the Notice of the Examination, merit list has been prepared on the basis of aggregate marks scored in Section-I & Section-II of Tier-II examination subject to qualifying Section-III (both module). The Commission has fixed cut off marks in Skill Test as under: -

(i) Category wise cut-off in Module-I of Section III (i.e. CKT) :

 

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

PWD-Others

UR

Cut-off marks

9

9

11.25

11.25

9

9

9

9

9

13.5

(ii) Category wise cut-off on Percentage of Error/mistakes allowed in Typing Test (Module II of Section III) for the post of LDC/JSA/JPA:

 

 

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

PWD-Others

UR

Cut-off on percentage of mistakes

10%

10%

10%

10%

10%

10%

10%

10%

10%

7%

(iii) Category wise cut-off on Percentage of Error/mistakes allowed in DEST (Module II of Section III) for the post of DEO Grade ‘A’:

 

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

ESM

OH

HH

VH

PWD- Others

UR

Cut-off on percentage of mistakes

7%

7%

7%

7%

7%

7%

7%

7%

7%

5%

7. Resolution of Tie Cases: In the event of tie in scores of candidates in Tier-II examination, merit has been decided by applying following criteria, one after another in the given order, till the tie is resolved:
a) Marks scored in Section-I of Tier-II Examination.
b) Date of birth, with older candidates placed higher.
c) Alphabetical order in which names of the candidates appear.

8. As per the provisions of the Notice of Examination, allocation of posts to eligible candidates has been made on the basis of merit-cum-preference of posts submitted by the candidates online. Merit list has been prepared on the basis of overall performance of the candidates in Tier II examination only. Subject to their qualifying in the document verification to be conducted by the respective user departments, a total of 1211 candidates have been provisionally recommended for appointment. Category-wise breakup of finally selected candidates is as follows: 

 

EWS

SC

ST

OBC

UR

Total

ESM

OH

HH

VH

PwD-Others

Vacancies

96

182

107

248

578

1211

36

15

10

08

02

Candidates recommended

96

182

107

248#

578*

1211

36

15

10

08

02

# 01 OBC candidate of horizontal category qualified against Unreserved (UR) vacancy.
* includes 99-EWS, 02-SC, 03-ST and 185-OBC candidates qualified at UR standard.
 36 ESM: 01- SC, 12-OBC and 23-UR candidates
 15 OH: 06- OBC and 09-UR candidates
 10 HH: 01-EWS, 05- OBC and 04-UR candidates
 08 VH: 01-EWS, 01- SC, 01- OBC and 05-UR candidates
 02 PwD-Others: 01-EWS and 01- OBC candidates

9. Post-wise and category-wise break-up of candidates provisionally shortlisted for different posts against the vacancies reported by the User departments and cut-off details of the last shortlisted candidates against each post is given below. In cases where candidates are shortlisted against horizontal categories (i.e. 3-ESM, 4-OH, 5-HH, 7-VH and 8-PwD-Others) marks and Date of Birth of such last shortlisted candidates are reflected against their respective horizontal category, not against their vertical category (i.e. 0-EWS, 1- SC, 2-ST, 6- OBC and 9-UR). In addition to this, vacancies of horizontal categories are also counted in their respective vertical categories as well. The rows corresponding to nil reported vacancies have not been shown in the tables below:

Post Code

Category

Vacancy

Allocated

Details of Last Shortlisted Candidate

Total Marks

Marks in Section I

Date of Birth

(DD-MMM- YYYY)

D42

SC

1

1

315

165

15-12-1995

D42

OBC

1

1

290

153

15-03-1999

D42

UR

2

2

307

157

01-10-1999

D43

UR

2

2

278

145

14-03-2001

D44

EWS

1

1

319

164

19-08-2000

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L14

OH

1

1

302

156

14-05-2002

L14

OBC

6

6

305

151

13-05-1994

L14

UR

2

2

313

161

01-02-2001

L15

OBC

1

1

317

168

05-07-2004

L15

UR

1

1

318

160

20-01-2000

L16

OBC

1

1

305

147

01-02-1994

L16

UR

1

1

306

152

20-02-2000

L17

EWS

9

9

296

147

02-06-2003

L17

SC

17

17

281

145

29-11-1998

L17

ST

23

23

268

152

21-07-1998

L17

UR

36

36

297

148

17-06-2003

L18

EWS

1

1

310

148

16-07-1998

L18

SC

3

3

285

156

07-01-2004

L18

ST

1

1

293

141

22-11-2000

L18

OBC

5

5

301

156

10-09-2001

L18

UR

11

11

302

154

08-11-2001

L19

EWS

5

5

299

150

19-07-1999

L19

SC

9

9

288

142

25-03-1999

L19

ST

4

4

278

146

07-06-2004

L19

HH

1

1

248

124

05-10-2001

L19

OBC

15

15

297

158

11-06-1997

L19

UR

36

36

300

148

07-07-2002

L20

EWS

2

2

296

153

28-06-2001

L20

HH

1

1

237

113

02-05-2001

L20

UR

1

1

303

155

19-08-2002

L21

EWS

1

1

303

152

29-05-2001

L21

SC

1

1

307

152

03-03-1999

L21

ST

1

1

292

153

01-04-2000

L21

ESM

1

1

238

106

17-03-1982

L21

OBC

2

2

304

148

20-05-2000

L21

UR

6

6

306

157

29-01-2001

L22

EWS

6

6

295

143

16-08-2003

L22

SC

13

13

286

132

12-04-1994

L22

ST

7

7

269

150

08-02-2001

L22

ESM

1

1

235

113

09-07-1985

L22

OH

3

3

285

156

15-02-2001

L22

HH

1

1

233

113

01-11-2000

L22

OBC

3#

3#

-

-

-

L22

UR

25

25

297

152

31-12-2001

L23

EWS

6

6

302

164

29-09-2002

L23

SC

9

9

292

147

29-11-2000

L23

ST

4

4

286

138

23-06-1997

L23

ESM

6

6

240

124

12-02-1988

L23

HH

1

1

279

135

10-02-2005

L23

OBC

17

17

304

146

10-06-2002

L23

VH

1

1

296

156

29-05-2001

L23

Others

1

1

282

141

20-06-2000

L23

UR

27

27

305

156

23-03-1997

L24

EWS

2

2

295

157

18-04-1999

L24

SC

8

8

285

141

31-03-2004

L24

ST

3

3

279

147

15-07-2001

L24

OBC

14

14

295

150

15-08-1997

L24

UR

36

36

295

150

11-02-2000

L25

EWS

1

1

294

157

01-05-2002

L25

SC

1

1

284

148

17-09-1994

L25

OH

1

1

304

150

03-08-1995

L25

OBC

3

3

295

142

30-07-1997

L25

UR

13

13

295

146

18-08-2000

L26

EWS

13

13

296

140

23-01-2004

L26

SC

45

45

281

140

17-06-2000

L26

ST

26

26

272

128

21-08-2001

L26

ESM

1

1

278

111

10-02-1985

L26

HH

1

1

277

117

15-11-2001

L26

OBC

21

21

297

147

07-02-1997

L26

UR

130

130

294

152

28-05-2000

L27

EWS

2

2

294

151

25-10-1999

L27

SC

8

8

280

154

03-02-1999

L27

ST

4

4

273

131

05-08-1998

L27

OBC

19

19

292

152

10-09-2002

L27

VH

1

1

303

155

13-05-1993

L27

UR

33

33

293

135

20-11-2000

L28

OBC

1

1

298

150

25-01-1997

L29

EWS

3

3

294

145

09-02-2000

L29

SC

6

6

282

140

18-08-2000

L29

ST

4

4

270

134

02-04-2002

L29

OBC

17

17

292

155

14-02-1999

L29

UR

13

13

293

153

26-11-1996

L30

EWS

3

3

295

150

17-01-2002

L30

SC

4

4

281

138

29-01-1996

L30

ST

2

2

272

133

01-04-1995

L30

OBC

7

7

294

160

10-08-2003

L30

UR

9

9

296

151

10-02-2001

L31

EWS

6

6

306

158

25-09-2002

L31

SC

6

6

298

149

09-06-2001

L31

ST

5

5

290

148

10-10-1999

L31

ESM

6

6

234

108

05-04-1986

L31

OH

1

1

301

156

15-06-1990

L31

HH

1

1

224

108

15-11-1987

L31

OBC

21

21

305

152

13-01-2004

L31

Others

1

1

270

134

09-05-2003

L31

UR

26

26

309

156

07-06-2000

L32

EWS

1

1

315

162

07-06-2001

L32

SC

1

1

311

157

27-11-1997

L32

ESM

1

1

291

153

15-08-1985

L32

OH

1

1

311

157

08-07-1997

L32

OBC

2

2

321

165

27-06-1996

L32

UR

7

7

318

162

24-03-2001

L33

EWS

10

10

293

143

15-07-1998

L33

SC

12

12

280

153

15-02-2003

L33

ST

7

7

269

133

14-09-1997

L33

ESM

6

6

232

107

12-04-1982

L33

OH

2

2

285

133

06-03-1997

L33

OBC

26

26

292

152

07-08-2000

L33

UR

33

33

293

157

10-08-1999

L34

EWS

2

2

293

140

27-05-1997

L34

SC

3

3

280

150

07-12-1998

L34

ST

1

1

272

152

05-08-1993

L34

OH

1

1

283

126

24-03-1994

L34

OBC

1

1

301

147

10-01-1995

L34

UR

6

6

294

146

22-12-2002

L35

SC

1

1

295

144

11-04-2001

L35

OBC

1

1

307

143

12-06-2002

L36

OBC

1

1

304

146

01-03-2003

L36

UR

4

4

300

143

17-08-2000

L37

EWS

1

1

306

154

16-03-2002

L37

ESM

1

1

236

102

14-06-1982

L37

OBC

3

3

305

176

01-04-2003

L37

UR

3

3

310

153

27-12-2000

L38

EWS

2

2

293

138

20-11-1998

L38

SC

3

3

280

143

20-12-1998

L38

ST

1

1

293

145

10-09-2002

L38

ESM

3

3

231

120

01-06-1985

L38

HH

1

1

280

140

23-09-1997

L38

OBC

7

7

292

151

25-05-1997

L38

UR

13

13

294

138

08-01-1998

L39

SC

3

3

280

143

24-04-1999

L39

ST

2

2

274

124

02-07-1993

L39

OBC

1

1

298

152

29-04-2004

L39

UR

4

4

299

146

17-03-2001

L40

EWS

4

4

301

158

22-03-2003

L40

SC

4

4

289

152

28-08-2001

L40

ST

2

2

284

146

07-08-1999

L40

ESM

1

1

249

100

15-01-1985

L40

OBC

15

15

299

151

07-07-1998

L40

VH

3

3

285

143

07-12-2001

L40

UR

11

11

305

150

14-09-1998

L41

EWS

2

2

293

153

22-12-2001

L41

SC

4

4

280

145

08-04-2000

L41

ST

1

1

268

149

30-11-2000

L41

OBC

9

9

292

154

04-07-2000

L41

VH

1

1

291

135

15-07-2000

L41

UR

19

19

293

154

29-09-2003

#Allocated against Horizontal Vacancy
Note 1: Candidates shortlisted against Horizontal vacancies have been counted in their vertical categories as well.
Note 2: Rows corresponding to Posts and Categories with ‘Nil’ reported vacancies, have not been included in these tables.

10. Details of Post Codes and Departments are as follows:

Post Code

Post Name

Department/Organization

L01

LDC/ JSA

Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

L02

LDC/ JSA

Bureau of Police Research & Development

L03

LDC/ JSA

Central Bureau of Investigation

L04

LDC/ JSA

Central Bureau of Narcotics, Ministry of Finance

L05

LDC/ JSA

Coast Guard Headquarters (Tatrakshak Mukhyalaya)

L06

LDC/ JSA

Controller General of Accounts

L07

LDC/ JSA

Department of Food & Public Distribution, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution

L08

LDC/ JSA

Department of Science & Technology, Ministry of Science & Technology

L09

LDC/ JSA

Department For Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry

L10

LDC/ JSA

Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying

L11

LDC/JUNIOR CLERK

Directorate General of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Civil Aviation

L12

LDC/ JSA

Directorate General of Aeronautical Quality Assurance, Ministry of Defence

L13

LDC/ JSA

Directorate General National Cadet Corps, Ministry of Defence

L14

LDC/ JSA

Directorate Of Enforcement, Department of Revenue

L15

LDC/ JSA

Election Commission of India

L16

LDC/ JSA

Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), Ministry of Law & Justice

L17

LDC/ JSA

Intelligence Bureau

L18

LDC/ JSA

Department Of Posts-Admn, Ministry f Communication

L19

LDC/ JSA

Office   of   Controller   General   of   Communication   Accounts (CGCA),  Department  Of  Telecommunications,     Ministry  of Communications

L20

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Culture

L21

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

L22

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change

L23

LDC/ JSA

Central Passport Office, Ministry of External Affairs

L24

LDC/ JSA

Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

L25

LDC/ JSA

Directorate  General  of  Health  Services  (DGHS),  Ministry  of Health and Family Welfare

L26

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

L27

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Labour & Employment

L28

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (Admn-III)

L29

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Textiles

L30

LDC/ JAA

Military Engineer Services –Army Hqrs, Ministry of Defence

L31

LDC/ JSA

Office of The JS (Trg) & CAO- AFHQ , Ministry of Defence

L32

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of External Affairs (Cadre Cell)

L33

LDC/ JSA

Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti

L34

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Mines

L35

LDC/ JSA

Ministry of Tourism

L36

LDC/ JSA

National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

L37

LDC/ JSA

National Investigation Agency

L38

LDC/ JSA

Office of The Director General Of Meteorology, India

Meteorological Department

L39

LDC/ JSA

Office of Development Commissioner, Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME)

L40

LDC/ JSA

Registrar General of India, Ministry of Home Affairs

L41

LDC/Court Clerks

Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law & Justice

D42

DEO Grade-A

Controller General of Accounts

D43

DEO

Department of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs,Food and Public Distribution

D44

DEO Grade-A

Staff Selection Commission (HQ), Department of Personnel and Training

11. 05 debarred candidates bearing Roll Nos. 2201146942, 2201246766, 3010014870, 3206132245,6005027872 appeared in the Tier-II examination. The result of these candidates has not been processed.

12. The final results of 06 candidates bearing Roll Nos. 2201082323, 2201123688, 2201247761, 2405076799,2405154607, 2405169214 have been kept withheld due to various reasons.

13. Post declaration of final result of the Examination, further process of Document Verification and appointment formalities of the shortlisted candidates will be undertaken by the Allocated Departments. If a candidate does not receive any correspondence from the concerned allocated User Department within a period of six months from declaration of the final result, he/she must communicate immediately thereafter with the concerned User Department. Further, the Commission will not, in any circumstances, entertain any correspondences regarding Document Verification/appointment formalities from the shortlisted candidates. 

14. No Reserve List/ Waiting List is prepared by the Commission. Unfilled vacancies in the final result and vacancies arising out of non-joining of shortlisted candidates will be carried forward to the subsequent year(s) by the concerned Departments/Organisations.

15. Representations received from the candidates with regard to the Answer Keys of Tier-II Examination have been carefully examined and the Answer Keys have been modified wherever necessary. Final answer keys have been used for evaluation.

16. Detailed marks of the shortlisted/ non-shortlisted candidates and the Final Answer Keys will be uploaded shortly on the website of the Commission.

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(Answer Key) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination (CHSL) Tier-II 2023

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(Answer Key) SSC Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination (CHSL) Tier-II 2023



Tier-II of Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination, 2023 was conductedbythe Commission on 02.11.2023 at different centers across the country. Tier-II of additionallyselected candidates, vide Additional Result of Tier-I declared by the Commissionon 12.12.2023, was conducted on 10.01.2024. 

2. The candidate’s Response Sheets along with the tentative Answer Keys arenowavailable on the link given below. The candidates may login with the link provided belowbyusing their Registered Login-ID and Password. 

3. Representations in respect of the tentative Answer Keys, if any, may be submittedonline from 13.01.2024 (04:00PM) to 15.01.2024 (04:00PM) on payment of INR100perquestion per answer challenged. Representations received after 04:00 PMon 15.01.2024 will not be entertained under any circumstances. 

4. Candidates’ may take a print out of their respective Response Sheets, as the same will not be available after the above specified time limit. 

5. Further, it is also informed that the Commission would obtain Option-cum-Preferencebefore the declaration of final result of the aforesaid exam. A Notice in this regard wouldbeuploaded shortly informing activation of Option-cum-Preference window for the candidatesto submit their preferences within stipulated time period mentioned therein. The candidatesare advised to visit the Staff Selection Commission’s website and also the websiteof theRegional/Sub-Regional offices from where they have appeared at regular intervals for furtherupdates. 6. Candidates who fail to exercise their Option-cum-Preference during the aforesaidperiod, shall NOT be given any further opportunity for submission of their Option-cum- Preference and such candidates will not be considered for inclusion in the final merit list/final selection.

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Study Kit for SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination 

SC CHSL(10+2) Exam HINDI Medium Printed Study Material - एसएससी - सीएचएसएल परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री 

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