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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 07-June-2019 Shift-3 (English Comprehension)

SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 07-June-2019 Shift-3

(English Comprehension)

Q.1 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

The old man wished to donate his ______ wealth for the upliftment of the downtrodden.
1. eminent
2. immense
3. intense
4. elusive

Correct Answer : immense

Q.2 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

TRANSIENT
1. stationary
2. permanent
3. celestial
4. temporal

Correct Answer : permanent

Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

The heavy losses in business came like a bolt from the blue.
1. an ominous warning
2. a thunderstorm
3. a windfall
4. an unexpected disaster

Correct Answer : an unexpected disaster

Q.4 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Some people believe that discipline means blind submission to authority.
1. It has been believed by some people that discipline means blind submission to authority.
2. It was believed by some people that discipline meant blind submission to authority.
3. It is believed by some people that discipline means blind submission to authority.
4. It is belief by some people that discipline means blind submission to authority.

Correct Answer : It is believed by some people that discipline means blind submission to authority.

Q.5 Select the correctly spelt word.
1. corigible
2. concious
3. complascent
4. contemptible

Correct Answer : contemptible

Q.6 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

If so many catches had not being dropped, we would have won the match.
1. had not being dropped
2. won the match
3. If so many catches
4. we would have

Correct Answer : had not being dropped

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

There was still a light on in Mo's room. He often stayed (1)______ reading late into the night. Meggie had (2)______ her love of books from him. When she (3)______ refuge with him from a bad dream, nothing could lull (4)______back to sleep better than Mo's calm breathing (5)______ her and the sound of the pages turning.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.
1. out
2. away
3. for
4. up

Correct Answer : up

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.
1. extracted
2. gained
3. procured
4. inherited

Correct Answer : inherited

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Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3
1. takes
2. has taken
3. took
4. will take

Correct Answer : took

Comprehension:

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4
1. his
2. it
3. her
4. them

Correct Answer : her

Comprehension:

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.
1. beside
2. behind
3. against
4. around

Correct Answer : beside

Q.12 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. Only the fittest creatures can survive while competing for food.
B. Why do some species survive and others become extinct?
C. His answer was that there is ceaseless struggle for life among all creatures.
D. This was the question that Darwin asked himself.
1. BDCA
2. ABDC
3. BCDA
4. ADCB

Correct Answer : BDCA

Q.13 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

The committee members were in ______ over the budget for the function.
1. difference
2. descent
3. deference
4. dissent

Correct Answer : dissent

Q.14 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

LIBERTY
1. slavery
2. freedom
3. autonomy
4. reservation

Correct Answer : slavery

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

He kicked up a row when he was denied entry to the amusement park.
1. waited in a queue
2. cried with sorrow
3. created a fuss
4. kicked the guard

Correct Answer : created a fuss

Q.16 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

Each of the girls have given an impressive dance performance.
1. Each of the girls
2. an impressive
3. dance performance
4. have given

Correct Answer : while pursuing momentary pleasures.

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.

Let us not neglect important aspects of life although pursue momentary pleasures.
1. No improvement
2. by pursued moment pleasures.
3. while pursuing momentary pleasures.
4. through pursued in momentary pleasures.

Correct Answer : through pursued in momentary pleasures.

Q.18 Select one word substitution for the given words.

A trade that is prohibited by law
1. illusive
2. incredible
3. inapt
4. illicit

Correct Answer : illicit

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

RETICENT
1. confident
2. garrulous
3. silent
4. extrovert

Correct Answer : silent

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

FURY
1. anger
2. sorrow
3. fright
4. cruelty

Correct Answer : anger

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.

We must endeavour to increase women's access for education also employment.
1. access in education also employment
2. access to education and employment
3. excess to education or employment
4. No improvement

Correct Answer : access to education and employment

Q.22 Select the correct active form of the given sentence.

The hunchback was being laughed at by everyone.
1. Everyone is laughing at the hunchback.
2. Everyone laughs at the hunchback.
3. Everyone laughed at the hunchback.
4. Everyone was laughing at the hunchback.

Correct Answer : Everyone was laughing at the hunchback.

Q.23 Select one word substitution for the given words.

To give up the throne
1. abdicate
2. consign
3. usurp
4. bequeath

Correct Answer : abdicate

Q.24 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. What can we do to avoid anger and provocation?
B. Anger and tension are prevalent due to conflicts arising out of these differences.
C. The society is full of people who think and act differently.
D. We need to develop in ourselves the capacity for conversion to turn negative experiences into positive thinking.
1. ABDC
2. CBAD
3. ACBD
4. CADB

Correct Answer : CBAD

Q.25 Select the correctly spelt word.
1. apearance
2. abundance
3. attendence
4. arrogence

Correct Answer : abundance

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 07-June-2019 Shift-3 (General Awareness)

SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 07-June-2019 Shift-3

(General Awareness)

Q.1 ___________codified the first two laws of thermodynamics and deduced that the absolute zero of temperature is −273.15°C. He was honoured for this with the naming of the Kelvin temperature scale.
1. Robert Hooke
2. William Thomson
3. William Crookes
4. Luis Alvarez

Correct Answer : William Thomson

Q.2 Who decides on the issue related to the disqualification of a Member of Lok Sabha under Tenth Schedule?
1. Speaker
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice President
4. President

Correct Answer : Speaker

Q.3 The Suri king ______ was defeated by Humayun to regain his kingdom.
1. Sikandar Suri
2. Mahmood Suri
3. Sher Shah Suri
4. Bahalol Suri

Correct Answer : Sikandar Suri

Q.4 In March 2019, a science teacher from rural Kenya named _____ won the prestigious Global Teacher Prize 2019, worth $1 million, which honours the world’s best teacher.
1. Peter Tabichi
2. Andria Zafirakou
3. Hanan Al Hroub
4. Nancie Atwell

Correct Answer : Peter Tabichi

Q.5 Who invented the atomic battery in 1912?
1. Henry Moseley
2. Benjamin Franklin
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Alessandro Volta

Correct Answer : Henry Moseley

Q.6 ________ is an important road link between Srinagar on one side and Kargil and Leh on the other side.
1. Muling La
2. Zoji La
3. Shipki La
4. Qara Tag La

Correct Answer : Zoji La

Q.7 Brazilian physicist and astronomer ______was awarded the 2019 Templeton Prize, worth $1.4 million, for his work blending science and spirituality.
1. Nicolaus Copernicus
2. Charles Messier
3. Marcelo Gleiser
4. Edwin Hubble

Correct Answer : Marcelo Gleiser

Q.8 What does the Lorenz Curve indicate?
1. Relationship between the price of a certain commodity and its demand
2. Taxable income elasticity
3. Rate of employment
4. Income distribution

Correct Answer : Income distribution

Q.9 Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a multi-sport event held every ____ years among athletes from all over Asia.
1. six
2. five
3. three
4. four

Correct Answer : four

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Q.10 The maximum number of nominated members to Lok Sabha is ____.
1. 4
2. 2
3. 3
4. 1

Correct Answer : 2

Q.11 Flying Officer _____ of the Indian Air Force (IAF) created history by becoming the first Indian woman to fly her first solo fighter flight in a Russian made MiG-21 fighter.
1. Anjali Gupta
2. Mohana Singh
3. Avani Chaturvedi
4. Bhawana Kanth

Correct Answer : Avani Chaturvedi

Q.12 In March 2019, the Government of ____ launched the 'Lose to Win' programme to assist overweight employees shed extra kilos and adopt a healthy lifestyle.
1. UAE
2. US
3. Australia
4. UK

Correct Answer : UAE

Q.13 The base financial year for the calculation of the all India Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is:
1. 2005-2006
2. 2004-2005
3. 2011-2012
4. 2010-2011

Correct Answer : 2011-2012

Q.14 _____ built the world famous Harmandar Sahib, popularly known as the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
1. Guru Arjan Dev
2. Guru Ram Das
3. Guru Siri Har Rai
4. Guru Angad Dev

Correct Answer : Guru Arjan Dev

Q.15 The deficiency of which nutrient causes night blindness ?
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin C
3. Vitamin K
4. Proteins

Correct Answer : Vitamin A

Q.16 _______ won gold in the Men’s freestyle wrestling 65 kg category at the Dan Kolov 2019 wrestling event.

1. Sushil Kumar
2. Sandeep Tomar
3. Yogeshwar Dutt
4. Bajrang Punia

Correct Answer : Bajrang Punia

Q.17 The Almatti dam project on the Krishna river was an issue between which states?
1. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
2. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
3. Karnataka and Goa
4. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer : Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

Q.18 _____ is famous for outstanding specimen of Buddhist art and architecture, belonging to the period between the 3rd century B.C. and the 12th century A.D.
1. Satna
2. Vidisha
3. Dewas
4. Sanchi

Correct Answer : Sanchi

Q.19 During whose reign did the Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang visit India?
1. Chandragupta Vikramaditya
2. Harshavardhana
3. Samudragupta
4. Chandragupta I

Correct Answer : Harshavardhana

Q.20 ________was the first person to isolate methane gas. He discovered that methane mixed with air could be exploded using an electric spark.
1. Alessandro Volta
2. William Thomson
3. Louis Pasteur
4. William Crookes

Correct Answer : Alessandro Volta

Q.21 In March 2018, Indian actress ____ was named as the new ambassador of the international award-winning non-profit organisation, Educate Girls.
1. Priyanka Chopra
2. Aishwarya Rai
3. Deepika Padukone
4. Katrina Kaif

Correct Answer : Katrina Kaif

Q.22 Who was the fifth of the ten Sikh gurus?
1. Guru Ramdas
2. Guru Arjan Dev
3. Guru Hargobind
4. Guru Angad

Correct Answer : Guru Arjan Dev

Q.23 The Qutub Minar was named after the Sufi saint __________.
1. Syed Waheed Ashraf
2. Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
3. Alauddin Sabir Kaliyari
4. Qutub-ud-Din Aibak

Correct Answer : Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki

Q.24 ‘Shifting cultivation’ is also known as ______ in north-east India.
1. Ladang
2. Jhum
3. Logan
4. Chena

Correct Answer : Jhum

Q.25 The theory that dinosaurs were driven to extinction by the aftermath of a large asteroid impact on Earth was given by _________.
1. Wilhelm Röntgen
2. Henry Moseley
3. William Crookes
4. Luis Alvarez

Correct Answer : Luis Alvarez

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(पेपर) एस.एस.सी सीजीएल (टीयर -2) परीक्षा - 2017 "22 फरवरी 2018 को आयोजित" सुबह पाली "(सांख्यिकी)

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -5 (General English)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Recent advances in science and technology have made it possible for geneticists to find out abnormalities in the unborn foetus and take remedial action to rectify some defects which would otherwise prove to be fatal to the child. Though genetic engineering is still at its infancy, scientists can now predict with greater accuracy a genetic disorder. It is not yet an exact science since they are not in a position to predict when exactly a genetic disorder will set in. While they have not yet been able to change the genetic order of the gene in germs, they are optimistic and are holding out that in the near future they might be successful in achieving this feat. They have, however, acquired the ability in manipulating tissue cells. However, genetic misinformation can sometimes be damaging for it may adversely affect people psychologically. Genetic information may lead to a tendency to brand some people as inferiors. Genetic information can therefore be abused and its application in deciding the sex of the foetus and its subsequent abortion is now hotly debated on ethical lines. But on this issue geneticists cannot be squarely blamed though this charge has often been levelled at them. It is mainly a societal problem. At present genetic engineering is a costly process of detecting disorders but scientists hope to reduce the costs when technology becomes more advanced. This is why much progress in this area has been possible in scientifically advanced and rich countries like the USA, UK and Japan. It remains to be seen if in the future this science will lead to the development of a race of supermen or will be able to obliterate disease from this world.

51. Which of the following, according of genetics in becoming an exact science?

(A) Technicians will not be able to determine the time when genetic disorder will set in
(B) Technicians have not been able to manipulate germ cells.

(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Either A or B

52. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘squarely’ as used in the passage?

(a) rigidly
(b) firmly
(c) directly
(d) at right angle

53. Which of the following is not true, according to the passage?

(a) Society is not affected by the research in genetic engineering.
(b) Genetic engineers are not able to say some things with certainty.
(c) If genetic information is not properly handled, it will create problems.
(d) Manipulation of genes is presently done only in tissue cell.

54. According to the author, the present state of knowledge about heredity has made geneticists.

(a) introspective
(b) accusative
(c) arrogant
(d) optimistic

55. What is the tone of the author in the last sentence of the passage?

(a) resignation
(b) cautious
(c) relief
(d) concern

56. Which of the following is not true of the genetic engineering movement?

(a) Possibility of abuse
(b) It is confronted by ethical problems.
(c) Increased tendency to manipulate gene cells.
(d) Acquired ability to detect genetics disorders in unborn babies.

57. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘feat’ as used in the passage?

(a) process
(b) focus
(c) fact
(d) goal

58. Why, according to the author, is genetic misinformation severely damaging.

(A) The cost involved is very high.
(B) Some people are unjustly branded as inferior.

(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B

59. In the passage, ‘abused’ means

(a) insulted
(b) talked about
(c) killed
(d) misused

60. At present genetic engineering can rectify all genetic disorder, is it?

(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) It can do so only in some cases
(d) Cannot be said

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एसएससी मल्टीटास्किंग (गैर तकनीकी) स्टाफ परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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SSC CHSL Exam Statistics 2018

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संयुक्त उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्तरीय (10+2) परीक्षा

एसएससी CHSL परीक्षा

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -5 (Numerical Aptitude)

26.

27. A common factor of (13⁷ + 11⁷) and (13⁵ + 11⁵) is :

(a) 24
(b) 13⁵ + 11⁵
(c) 13² + 11²
(d) None of the above

(a) 0.02
(b) 0.004
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.04

30. The next number of the sequence 3, 5, 9, 17,33 ... is:

(a) 65
(b) 60
(c) 50
(d) 49

31.

32. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?

(a) 24
(b) 48
(c) 56
(d) 60

33. If the sum of two numbers is 22 and the sum of their squares is 404, then the product of the numbers is:

(a) 40
(b) 44
(c) 80
(d) 88

36. The sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is equal to :

(a) 210
(b) 300
(c) 400
(d) 420

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एसएससी मल्टीटास्किंग (गैर तकनीकी) स्टाफ परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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(पेपर) एस.एस.सी सीजीएल (टीयर -2) परीक्षा - 2017 "22 फरवरी 2018 को आयोजित" सुबह पाली "(सामान्य अध्ययन)

QID : 201 - यदि साझेदारी विलेख अनुच्चरित है, तो एक साझेदार को व्यवसाय के संचालन में भाग लेने के लिए कितना न्यूनतम वेतन तथा अन्य पारिश्रमिक देना चाहिए?
Options:
1) 10,000 रु
2) 20,000 रु
3) साझेदार द्वारा निवेश की गई पूँजी का 10%
4) कोई वेतन नहीं
Correct Answer: कोई वेतन नहीं

QID : 202 - निम्नलिखित में से किसे मौजूदा स्टॉक से अलग वर्तमान परिसंपत्तियों से बाहर रखा जाना चाहिए, ताकि चल परिसंपत्ति के समान राशि प्राप्त की जा सके?
Options:
1) पूर्वदत्त व्यय
2) देनदार
3) उपार्जित आय
4) प्राप्य विपत्र
Correct Answer: पूर्वदत्त व्यय

QID : 203 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी एक पूँजीगत प्राप्ति है?
Options:
> 1) ऋण के रूप में प्राप्त राशि
2) वस्तुओं की बिक्री से प्राप्त धन
3) निवेश पर प्राप्त लाभांश
4) सेवाएँ देने से प्राप्त कमीशन तथा शुल्क
Correct Answer: ऋण के रूप में प्राप्त राशि

QID : 204 - राजस्व उत्पन्न करने में प्रयोग की गई सेवाओं अथवा वस्तुओं की लागत ______ है।
Options:
> 1) सम्पति
2) लाभ
3) स्टॉक
4) व्यय
Correct Answer: व्यय

QID : 205 - ______ बताता है कि लेखांकन प्रलेखों का संबंध समान अवधि से हो तथा वह समान मापन इकाई व समान प्रतिवेदन प्रारूप का उपयोग करें।
Options:
> 1) प्रासंगिकता
2) तुलनीयता
3) बोधगम्यता
4) विश्वसनीयता
Correct Answer: तुलनीयता

QID : 206 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी लेखांकन संकल्पना व्यक्तिगत आग्रह का निराकरण करती है तथा उन परिणामों को प्राप्त करने में सहायता करती है जो तुलनीय हो?
Options:
> 1) लेखांकन अवधि
2) द्विपक्षीय
3) लागत
4) समरूपता
Correct Answer: समरूपता

QID : 207 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कथन सही हैं?

I. राजस्व/लाभ में वृद्धि को जमा पक्ष में दर्ज किया जाएगा।
II. पूँजी में वृद्धि को जमा पक्ष में दर्ज किया जाएगा।
III. व्ययों में वृद्धि को नाम पक्ष में दर्ज किया जाएगा।
IV. देयताओं में वृद्धि को जमा पक्ष में दर्ज किया जाएगा।
Options:
> 1) केवल I तथा III
2) केवल II तथा IV
3) केवल I, III तथा IV
4) सभी सही हैं।
Correct Answer: सभी सही हैं।

QID : 208 - कार्यालय की क्षतिग्रस्त लेखन सामग्री को वापस लौटाया गया तथा 10,000 रु प्राप्त किए गए। ______ खाते में जमा किया जाएगा।
Options:
> 1) कार्यालय की लेखन सामग्री
2) रोकड़
3) क्रय वापसी
4) देनदार
Correct Answer: कार्यालय की लेखन सामग्री

QID : 209 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कथन सत्य नहीं हैं?

I. रोकड़ बही के जमा पक्ष में नकद प्राप्तियों का अभिलेखन किया जाता है।
II. भूमि की उधार खरीद को क्रय रोजनामचे में अभिलिखित किया जाएगा।
III. खाता बही एक सहायक पुस्तक है।
IV. खुदरा रोकड़ बही में छोटे भुगतानों का आलेख होता है।
Options:
> 1) केवल I तथा II
2) केवल II तथा III
3) केवल III तथा IV
4) केवल I तथा IV
Correct Answer: केवल I तथा II

QID : 210 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्य है?
Options:
> 1) चेक जमा किए गए परंतु एकत्रित नहीं किए गए इसका परिणाम यह होगा कि रोकड बही में पासबुक की तुलना में शेषराशि कम हो जायेगी।
2) रोकड़ बही के अनुसार अनुकूल बैंक शेषराशि, बैंक पासबुक की शेषराशि की तुलना कम होगी जब भुगतान के लिए चेक प्रस्तुत नहीं किये जायेंगे।
3) व्यापार के खाते में ऋण की शेषराशि बैंक की पुस्तकों में रोकड़ बही के अनुसार बैंक खाते के देनदार शेषराशि के बराबर नहीं होनी चाहिए।
4) पासबुक के अनुसार जारी किए गए चेक लेकिन भुगतान के लिए प्रस्तुत नहीं किये गये, शेषराशि को कम कर देगें।
Correct Answer: रोकड़ बही के अनुसार अनुकूल बैंक शेषराशि, बैंक पासबुक की शेषराशि की तुलना कम होगी जब भुगतान के लिए चेक प्रस्तुत नहीं किये जायेंगे।

QID : 211 - तलपट को तैयार करने का/के क्या उद्देश्य है/हैं?
Options:
1) बही खातों की अंकीय शुद्धता का निर्धारण करना।
2) अशुद्धियों का पता लगाने में सहायता करना।
3) वित्तीय विवरणों को तैयार करने में सहायता करना।
4) ये सभी
Correct Answer: ये सभी

QID : 212 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा तलपट में नाम राशि की तरह दर्शाया जाएगा?
Options:
> 1) ब्याज का भुगतान
2) दीर्घकालीन ऋण
3) ग्राहकों से अग्रिम राशि
4) क्रय वापसी
Correct Answer: ब्याज का भुगतान

QID : 213 - यदि किसी मशीन का उधार क्रय किया गया है तथा उसका अभिलेखन मूल रोजनामचा के स्थान पर क्रय बही में कर दिया गया है, तो यह ______ अशुद्धि है।
Options:
> 1) क्षतिपूरक
2) सैद्धांतिक
3) लोप
4) लेख
Correct Answer: सैद्धांतिक

QID : 214 - निम्नलिखित में से किस अशुद्धि का संशोधन ‘उचंत खाते’ की सहायता से होगा?
Options:
> 1) ललित द्वारा 5,000 रु की विक्रय वापसी का अभिलेखन क्रय वापसी बही में करना।
2) ललित द्वारा 5,000 रु की विक्रय वापसी का अभिलेखन न करना।
3) ललित द्वारा 5,000 रु की विक्रय वापसी को 500 रु से दर्ज करना।
4) विक्रय बही का योग 5,000 रु से कम करना।
Correct Answer: विक्रय बही का योग 5,000 रु से कम करना।

QID : 215 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन मूल्यह्रास के संबंध में असत्य है?
Options:
> 1) यह स्थायी परिसंपत्तियों के पुस्तक-मूल्य का अवक्षयण है।
2) यह एक निरंतर चलने वाली प्रक्रिया है।
3) यह असमाप्त लागत है।
4) यह गैर रोकड़ व्यय है।
Correct Answer: यह असमाप्त लागत है।

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एसएससी CGL (टीयर -1) परीक्षा के लिए ऑनलाइन कोचिंग

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -5 (Reasoning)

Directions: Find the related word/letters/number to cornplete the Analogy.

1. Carbon : Diamond :: Corundum : ?

(a) Garnet
(b) Ruby
(c) Pukhraj
(d) Pearl

2. Smoke : Pollution : : War

(a) Victory
(b) Peace
(c) Treaty
(d) Destruction

3. Ink : Pen : : Blood ?

(a) Accident
(b) Doctor
(c) Vein
(d) Donation

4. BOQD : ERTG : : ANPC : ?

(a) DQSF
(b) FSHU
(c) SHFU
(d) DSQF

5. AFKP : ZUPK :: BGLQ : ?

(a) YUQM
(b) XURO
(c) YXWV
(d) YTOJ

6. 182 : ? :: 210 : 380

(a) 342
(b) 272
(c) 240
(d) 156

Directions: Select the related figure from the Answer Figures.

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -4 (General Awareness)

101. Pope Benedict XVI who has been elected recently is the

(a) 250th Pope
(b) 260th Pope
(c) 265th Pope
(d) 270th Pope

102. Who among the following has been awarded the Pravasi Bharatiya Samman for his outstanding achievement in their field and fostering.understanding of India abroad ?

(a) Vikram Seth
(b) Ms. Indira Nooyi
(c) Laxmi Mittal
(d) Sunil Mittal

103. According to AT Kearney Inc, which country is the hottest destination for foreign direct investment?

(a) India
(b) China
(c) Malaysia
(d) Mauritius

104. The country with which India has decided to exchange its border maps is:

(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal

105. Per Capita income is maximum in which of the following states in India?

(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) Goa

106. The author of the book “Environmental Jurispru-dence” is:

(a) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(b) Justice Ashok A. Desai
(c) Justice A. K. Sood
(d) Justice Prem Nagar

107. Which one of the following is true regarding plant cells and animal cells ?

(a) Plant cells contain chloroplast while animal cells do not.
(b) Plant cells are small while animal cells are large in size
(c) Plant cells contain nucleus while animal cells do not
(d) Plant cells and animal cells are similar in all respects

108. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was associated with

(a) Industrial Policy
(b) Banking Reforms
(c) Panchayati Raj
(d) Centre-State relations

109. The blood cholesterol level in 100 ml of blood in a normal person varies between

(a) 150 and 200 mg
(b) 120 and 200 mg
(c) 100 and 180 mg
(d) 80 and 160 mg

110. What is the name of the electronic communication network of the Reserve Bank of India ?

(a) BOLT
(b) RBISAT
(c) RBINET
(d) RBIDOT

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(पेपर) एस.एस.सी सीजीएल (टीयर -2) परीक्षा - 2017 "19 फरवरी 2018 को आयोजित" सुबह पाली "(मात्रात्मक क्षमता)

QID : 1 - यदि N = 1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + … +111111111 हो, तो N के अंकों का योग क्या है?
Options:
1) 45
2) 18
3) 36
4) 5
Correct Answer: 45

QID : 2 - 1 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 7 + 7 + 10 + 9 + …. के प्रथम 40 पदों का योग क्या है?
Options:
1) 1010
2) 1115
3) 1030
4) 1031
Correct Answer: 1030

QID : -

Options:
1) 222222222
2) 111111111
3) 555555555
4) 525252525
Correct Answer: 555555555

QID : 4 -

Options:
1) 2.4
2) 2
3) 4
4) 3
Correct Answer: 3

QID : 5 -

Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 1
4) 4
Correct Answer: 2

QID : 6 -

Options:
1) 6
2) 8
3) 5
4) 7
Correct Answer: 8

QID : 7 -

Options:
1) 21/509
2) 18/403
3) 25/301
4) 29/31
Correct Answer: 25/301

QID : 8 - 15 + 25 + 35 + … + 205 का इकाई अंक क्या है?
Options:
1) 0
2) 5
3) 2
4) 4
Correct Answer: 0

QID : 9 - x, y तथा z अभाज्य संख्याएँ हैं तथा x + y + z = 38 है। x का अधिकतम मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 19
2) 23
3) 31
4) 29
Correct Answer: 31

QID : 10 - N तीन अंकों की सबसे छोटी अभाज्य संख्या है। जब N को 13 से विभाजित किया जाता है, तो शेषफल क्या होगा?
Options:
1) 8
2) 9
3) 7
4) 10
Correct Answer: 10

QID : 11 - √261 तथा √45109 के मध्य कितनी प्राकृतिक संख्याएँ हैं?
Options:
1) 144
2) 196
3) 168
4) 195
Correct Answer: 196

QID : 12 - √121 + √12321 + √1234321 + √123454321 का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 12345
2) 123456
3) 12344
4) 123454
Correct Answer: 12344

QID : 13 - p³ + q³ + r³ – 3pqr = 4 है। यदि a = q + r, b = r + p तथा c = p + q हैं, तो a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 4
2) 8
3) 2
4) 12
Correct Answer: 8
Candidate Answer: 8

QID : 14 - If α and β are the roots of the equation x² + x – 1 = 0, then what is the equation whose roots are α⁵ and β⁵?

यदि α तथा β समीकरण x² + x – 1 = 0 के मूल हैं, तो वह समीकरण क्या है जिसके मूल α⁵ तथा β⁵ हैं?
Options:
1) x2 + 7x – 1 = 0
2) x2 – 7x – 1 = 0
3) x2 – 11x – 1 = 0
4) x2 + 11x – 1 = 0
Correct Answer: x2 + 11x – 1 = 0

QID : 15 - यदि x तथा y प्राकृतिक संख्याएँ इस प्रकार है कि x + y = 2017 हैं, तो (– 1)x + (– 1)y का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 2
2) – 2
3) 0
4) 1
Correct Answer: 0

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एसएससी CGL (टीयर -1) परीक्षा के लिए ऑनलाइन कोचिंग

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -4 (General English)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics, gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetness. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled at over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles and they now lived in home of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored left her and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neightbours looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.

The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”

His mother launghed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.

The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”
“You’ll get it when you go far away.”
“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”

His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her, “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”

51. Why did the woman’s second son travel ?

(a) He was restless by nature
(b) He did not want to stay at home
(c) He was rich and could afford to travel
(d) His job was such that he had to travel

52. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?

(a) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(b) He had quarrelled with his mother
(c) His wife did not allow him to return home
(d) His job prevented him from taking leave

53. How did the woman prepare for the festival?

(A) She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours
(B) She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance
(C) She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.

(a) None
(b) Only (a)
(c) Only (b)
(d) (a) and (b)

54. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?

(A) He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats
(B) He presented his mother to give him a present.
(C) He stood at the door with the servants

(a) Only (a)
(b) Only (b)
(c) (a) and (c)
(d) only (c)

55. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?

(a) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(b) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(c) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(d) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy

56. What did the boy receive from his mother ?

(a) She taught him the value of patience
(b) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brother
(c) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(d) She gave him a hug to express her love

57. Which of the following a TRUE in the context of the passage ?

(a) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(b) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(c) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(d) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants

Directions: Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word as used in the passage.

58. left

(a) gone
(b) quit
(c) remaining
(d) disappeared

59. packed

(a) filled
(b) squeezed
(c) crowd
(d) collected

60. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.

(a) calmy
(b) happily
(c) willingly
(d) fortunately

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(पेपर) एस.एस.सी सीजीएल (टीयर -2) परीक्षा - 2017 "18 फरवरी 2018 को आयोजित" सुबह पाली "(मात्रात्मक क्षमता)

QID : 1 - तीन अंकों वाली ऐसी कितनी संख्याएँ हैं जिसमें सभी अंक विषम हैं?
Options:
1) 100
2) 125
3) 500
4) 250
Correct Answer: 125

QID : 2 - यदि दस विभिन्न धनात्मक पूर्णांकों का योग 100 है, तो इन 10 संख्याओं में सबसे बड़ी संभावित संख्या क्या है?
Options:
1) 45
2) 91
3) 55
4) 64
Correct Answer: 55

QID : 3 - यदि N = 0.369369369369… तथा M = 0.531531531531… हैं, तो (1/N) + (1/M) का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 11100/2419
2) 111/100
3) 1897/3162
4) 2419/11100
Correct Answer: 11100/2419

QID : 4 -

Options:
1) 0.8
2) 1
3) 1.4
4) 2.2
Correct Answer: 1

QID : 5 -

Options:
1) 379/308
2) 171/140
3) 379/310
4) 420/341
Correct Answer: 420/341

QID : 6 - यदि 56 × 75 × 60 × 84 × 210 = 2^p × 3^q × 5^r × 7^s हो, तो [(p + q)/s] + r का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 6
2) 8
3) 12
4) 10
Correct Answer: 8

QID : 7 -

Options:
1) 5/8
2) 1
3) 0
4) 3/8
Correct Answer: 3/8
Candidate Answer: 3/8

QID : 8 - 100 तथा 400 के मध्य सभी प्राकृतिक संख्याओं का योग क्या है जो 13 से विभाज्य हैं?
Options:
1) 5681
2) 5334
3) 5434
4) 5761
Correct Answer: 5681

QID : 9 - यदि दो संख्याओँ 1728 तथा K का लघुत्तम समापवर्त्य 5184 है, तो K के कितने मान संभव हैं?
Options:
1) 11
2) 8
3) 6
4) 7
Correct Answer: 7

QID : 10 - यदि (3³³ + 3³³ + 3³³) (2³³ + 2³³) = 6x हो, तो x का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 34
2) 35
3) 33
4) 33.5
Correct Answer: 34

QID : 11 -निम्नलिखित कथन/कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?

I. (65)^1/6 > (17)^1/4 > (12)^1/3
II. (17)^1/4 > (65)^1/6 > (12)^1/3
III. (12)^1/3 > (17)^1/4 > (65)^1/6
Options:
1) केवल I
2) केवल III
3) केवल II
4) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Correct Answer: केवल III

QID : 12 - यदि P = 7 + 4√3 तथा PQ = 1 हैं, तो (1/P²) + (1/Q²) का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 148
2) 189
3) 194
4) 204
Correct Answer: 194

QID : 13 - यदि x = (√5) + 1 तथा y = (√5) – 1 हैं, तो (x²/y²) + (y²/x²) + 4[(x/y) + (y/x)] + 6 का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 31
2) 23√5
3) 27√5
4) 25
Correct Answer: 25

QID : 14 - यदि x = 2 +√3, y = 2 – √3 तथा z = 1 हैं, तो (x/yz) + (y/xz) + (z/xy) + 2 [(1/x) + (1/y) + (1/z)] का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 25
2) 22
3) 17
4) 43
Correct Answer: 25

QID : 15 - समीकरण ax² + bx + c = 0 (जहाँ a, b तथा c परिमेय संख्याएँ है) का मूल 5 + 3√3 है। (a² + b² + c²)/(a + b + c) का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 35/3
2) 37/3
3) – 105/11
4) – 105/13
Correct Answer: – 105/11

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एसएससी - कर्मचारी चयन आयोग (सीजीएल) परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

एसएससी CGL (टीयर -1) परीक्षा के लिए ऑनलाइन कोचिंग

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(पेपर) एस.एस.सी सीजीएल (टीयर -2) परीक्षा - 2017 "17 फरवरी 2018 को आयोजित" सुबह पाली "(मात्रात्मक क्षमता)

QID : 1 - प्रथम 111 पूर्ण संख्याओं के योग का इकाई अंक क्या है?
Options:
1) 4
2) 6
3) 5
4) 0
Correct Answer: 5

QID : 2 - 100 अंकों की कितनी धनात्मक संख्याएँ हैं?
Options:
1) 9 × 1099
2) 9 × 10100
3) 10100
4) 11 × 1098
Correct Answer: 9 × 1099

QID : 3 -

Options:
1) 2
2) 1
3) 3
4) 3/2
Correct Answer: 2

QID : 4 -

Options:
1) 1/4
2) 1/2
3) 1
4) 2
Correct Answer: 2

QID : 5 - (217)⁴¹³× (819)⁵⁴⁷ × (414)⁶²⁴× (342)⁸¹² का इकाई अंक क्या है?
Options:
1) 2
2) 4
3) 6
4) 8
Correct Answer: 8

QID : 6 -

Options:
1) 6179/15275
2) 6070/14973
3) 7191/15174
4) 5183/16423
Correct Answer: 6070/14973

QID : 7 -

Options:
1) केवल I
2) केवल II
3) केवल III
4) केवल IV
Correct Answer: केवल III

QID : 8 - दो अंकों की एक सबसे बड़ी संख्या N है , जिसे जब 3, 4 तथा 6 से विभाजित किया जाता है तो शेषफल क्रमशः 1, 2 तथा 4 आता है। N को 5 से विभाजित करने पर शेषफल क्या है?
Options:
1) 4
2) 2
3) 0
4) 1
Correct Answer: 4

QID : 9 -

Options:
1) केवल I
2) केवल II
3) केवल III
4) केवल IV
Correct Answer: केवल III

QID : 10 - A तथा B धनात्मक पूर्णांक हैं। यदि A + B + AB = 65 है, तो A तथा B के मध्य अंतर क्या है (A, B ≤ 15)?
Options:
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
Correct Answer: 5

QID : 11 - 143 + 163 + 183 + … + 303 का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 134576
2) 120212
3) 115624
4) 111672
Correct Answer: 111672

QID : 12 -

Options:
1) 69
2) 68
3) 70
4) 72
Correct Answer: 68

QID : 13 - यदि x + y + z = 0 हो, तो (3y² + x² + z²)/(2y² – xz) का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 2
2) 1
3) 3/2
4) 5/3
Correct Answer: 2

QID : यदि P = 7 + 4√3 तथा PQ = 1 हैं, तो 1/P² + 1/Q² का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 196
2) 194
3) 206
4) 182
Correct Answer: 194

QID : 15 - यदि a³ + 3a² + 9a = 1 हो, तो a³ + (3/a) का मान क्या है?
Options:
1) 31
2) 26
3) 28
4) 24
Correct Answer: 28

एसएससी - कर्मचारी चयन आयोग (सीजीएल) परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -4 (Numerical Aptitude)

26. Suman can do a work in 3 days. Sumati can do the same work in 2 days. Both of them finish the work together and get Rs. 150. What is the share of Suman ?

(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 70
(d) Rs. 75

27. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A, is open all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternatively, the tank will be full in

28. 5 men can do a piece of work in 6 days while 10 women can do it in 5 days. In how many days can 5 women and 3 men do it ?

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8

29. A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They work together for 2 days and then A leaves. How long will B take to finish the remaining work ?

(a) 6 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 13 days

30. A train is travelling at the rate of 45krn/hr. How many seconds, it will take to cover a distance of 4/5 km ?

(a) 36
(b) 64
(c) 90
(d) 120

31. A person travels 600 km by train at 80km/hr, 800 km by ship at 40 km/hr. 500 km by aeroplane at 400 km/hr and 100 km by car at 50km/hr. What is the average speed for the entire distance ?

32. A train 100m long is running at the speed of 30 km/ hr. The time (in second) in which it will pass a man standing near the railway line is

(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 15

33. Two men are standing on opposite ends of a bridge of 1200 metres long. If they walk towards each other at the rate of 5m/minute and 10m/minute respectively, in how much time will they meet each other ?

(a) 60 minutes
(b) 80 minutes
(c) 85 minutes
(d) 90 minutes

34. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 km. per hour in 5 hours. To cover the same distance in 12/3 hours, it must travel at a speed of

(a) 300 km./hr.
(b) 360 km./hr.
(c) 600 km./hr.
(d) 720 km./hr.

Directions: A survery of film watching habits of people living in five cities P, Q, R, S and T is summarised below in a table. The coulmn I in the table gives percentage of film-watchers in each city who see only one film a week. The column II gives the total number of film-watchers who see two or more films per week.

35. How many film watchers in city R see only one film in a week ?

(a) 24850
(b) 36000
(c) 136000
(d) 160000

36. Which city has the highest number of film watchers who see only one film in a week?

(a) P
(b) R
(c) S
(d) T

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -4 (Reasoning)

Direction: Select the related figure form the Answer Figure.

2. Which of the following word pair is not related in the same way as ‘Returnable’ and ‘Natural’?

(a) Reciprocal and Oracle
(b) Reconstruct and Counter
(c) Department and Moderate
(d) Evaluation and Violent

Directions: Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

3. (a) Pond-Lake
(b) Pistol-Gun
(c) Car-Bus
(d) Church-Monument

4. (a) Insurance
(b) Provident Fund
(c) Salary
(d) Shares

5. (a) AYBZ
(b) BXCY
(c) DVEW
(d) MPON

Directions: Find the odd figure out.

8. Find out the pair of number that does not belong to the group for lack of common property.

(a) 84,67
(b) 112,95
(c) 79,63
(d) 167,150

Directions: From the given alternatives select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given in the question.

Given set: (1,3,7) 34.

(a) 3, 7, 11
(b) 13, 17, 29
(c) 17, 21, 29
(d) 29, 37, 47

Directions: From among the given alternatives select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given in the question.

Given set: (21, 30, 48)

9. (a) (8, 14, 25)
(b) (9, 18, 36)
(c) (13, 20, 30)
(d) (6, 14, 21)

10. A series of figures are given which can be grouped into classes. Select the group into which the figures can be classified.

(a) 1,3,4 2,5,9 6,7,8
(b) 1,2,3 4,5,6 7,8,9
(c) 1,5,9 2,4,7 3,6,8
(d) 3,7,8 1,6,5 4,2,9

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -3 (General Awareness)

101. The most important uranium mine of India is located at

(a) Manavalakurichi
(b) Gauribidanur
(c) Vashi
(d) Jaduguda

102. Parliamentary forni of Government is also known as:

(a) Responsive Government
(b) Responsible Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) Presidential Government

103. The chief advocate of Fascism was

(a) Mussolini
(b) Adolf Hitler
(c) St. Simon
(d) Robert Owen

104. The minimum age of the member of Rajya Sabha is

(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years

105. Mahatma Gandhi got his inspiration for Civil Disobedience from

(a) Tuoreau
(b) Ruskin
(c) Confucius
(d) Tolstoy

106. India is considered as a ‘Republic’ Mainly because

(a) the head of the State is elected.
(b) it gained independence on 15th August 1947
(c) it has its own written constitution
(d) it is having a Parliamentary form of Government.

107. The first Indian selected for Indian Civil Service was

(a) Surendra Nath Banerji
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) C. R. Das

108. One feature is common to the following bodies. Find it out. Supreme Court, Election Commission, UPSC, Office of CAG

(a) They are advisory bodies.
(b) They are extra constitutional bodies
(c) They are controlled by legislature.
(d) They are constitutional bodies.

109. How many members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly ?

(a)1/6^th of the members
(b) 1/3rd of the members
(c) 1/12^th of the members
(d) 5/6th of the members

110. Girish Karnad is

(a) a well known playwright and actor.
(b) a recipient of Gnanpith Award
(c) the President of the Film and Television Institute of Indian Society.
(d) all the above.

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(Cut off) SSC CGL TIER-1 Cut off - 2018

(Result) SSC CGL TIER-1 Result 2018

1.The Staff Selection Commission conducted the Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier-I), 2018 from 04.06.2019 to 13.06.2019 in the Computer Based Mode. Re-examination for 4825 candidates was conducted on 19.06.2019 and examination for 1 (one) candidate was conducted on 10.07.2019 on the Orders of Hon’ble Supreme Court of India. A total of 8,36,139 candidates appeared in the said examination.

2. Based on marks scored in Tier-I Computer Based Examination,candidates have been shortlisted, category-wise, to appear in Tier-II Examination. Separate cut-offs have been fixed for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer (List-1), Junior Statistical Officer in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (List-2) and all other posts (List-3).

3. As the Tier-I Computer Based Examination was conducted in multiple shifts, marks scored by the candidates have been normalized as per the formula published by the Commission on its website on 07.02.2019. Such normalized marks have been used to qualify the candidates for the next stage of Examination (i.e. Tier-II).

4. The Category-wise details of candidates who have provisionally qualified for Tier-II and the cut-offs applied for each category are given in the Tables below:

List-1: Candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II [Paper-I, Paper-II and Paper-IV (General Studies (Finance & Accounts))]

	SC	ST	*OBC*	UR	OH	HH	*Other PwD*	*Total*
Cut-off Marks	148.97	141.86	165.00	170.00	132.90	102.45	62.19
Candidates Available	2444	1272	4464	6247*	335	300	100	15162

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above, 209-SC, 79-ST, 2565-OBC and 8 OH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories. Further, PwD candidates have been shown in their respective horizontal categories only.

List-2: Candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II [Paper-I,Paper-II and Paper-III (Statistics)]

	SC	ST	*OBC*	UR	OH	HH	VH	**Other PwD**	*Total*
Cut-off Marks	140.11	129.56	162.35	165.96	112.48	51.99	64.57	40.00
CandidatesAvailable	1421	891	2008	3177*	333	333	364	51	8578

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above, 104-SC, 37-ST, 1429-OBC, 5-OH, 1-HH and 3-VH candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories. Further, PwD candidates have been shown in their respective horizontal categories only.

Note: Only those candidates who have applied for the post of J.S.O. and reported possessing of requisite EQ in the online Application Forms have been considered eligible for List-2.

List-3: Candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II (Paper-I and Paper-II):

	SC	ST	*OBC*	UR	*ESM*	OH	HH	VH	*OtherPwD*	*Total*
Cut-off Marks	111.10	103.22	131.18	137.07	40.00	95.55	40.00	70.25	40.00
Candidates Available	27835	12836	44078	51771*	8146	2727	1548	1282	173 1	50396

* In addition to the UR candidates shown above, 6323-SC, 1819-ST, 32718-OBC,330-Ex-Servicemen (ESM), 240-OH, 29-HH, 103-VH and 2-Other PwD candidates qualifying at UR standard have been shown under their respective categories. Further, ESM & PwD candidates have been shown in their respective horizontal categories only.

5. 1 (one) debarred candidate having Roll No. 3003306676 was found to have appeared in this Examination. Result of this candidate has not been processed.

6. Candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved, as per the policy of the Government must contact the respective Regional Offices of the Commission immediately if they do not belong to the category shown against their Roll numbers.

7. The Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination, 2018 is tentatively scheduled to be held from 11.09.2019 to 13.09.2019. The Admission Certificate of the qualified candidates will be uploaded on the websites of the respective Regional Offices approximately 07 days before the conduct of the Tier-II Exam. However, the candidates who are unable to download their Admit Cards may contact the concerned Regional Offices immediately. The responsibility of ensuring the download of the Admit Cards is solely of the candidates.

8. Marks of the qualified/non-qualified candidates and Final Answer Keys along with the Question Paper(s) in a standard format will be hosted shortly on the Commission’s website - http://ssc.nic.in.

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -3 (General English)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while! answering some of the questions.

Govind’s father was a rich landlord, who was loved and respected by all his tenants. When he died, he left large tracts of land to Govind. But Govind did not spend a single day looking after his land. He had a funny idea, that there existed a magic potion which, if it was poured on any object would turn it into gold. He spent all his time trying to learn about this potion. People took advantage of him and cheated him. His wife grew anxious. Given the amount of money Govind was spending, she was sure that they would soon be paupers. One day, a widely respected sage who had been to the Himalayas came to their town. Govind asked him about the potion. To his surprise the sage answered, “I have learnt how to brew such a potion. But it is a difficult process.” “Tell me!” insisted Govind, hardly able to believe his luck. “You have to collect the dew which settles on the leaves of a banana tree every morning during winter. There is a condition though. The tree should be planted and watered regularly with your own hands. Store the collected dew in an earthen vessel and when you have five litres, bring it to me. I will recite a sacred mantra to transform the dew into the potion. A drop of the potion will be sufficient to change any object into gold.”

Govind was worried. “Winter is only for a few months in the year. It will take me years to collect the dew.” “You can plant as many trees as you want,” replied the sage. Govind went home and after talking to his wife, began clearing the large fields which has been lying vacant for years. He planted rows of banana saplings. He tended them with great care. His wife helped him too. She would take the banana crop to market and get a good price. Over the years the plantation grew and finally after six years Govind had five litres of dew. He went to the sage who smiled, uttered a mantra and sprinkled a few drops of dew on a copper vessel. To Govind’s dismay, nothing happened. “You have cheated me!” he shouted at the sage. The sage, however, smiled. Govind’s wife then came forward with a box. The sage opened it and revealed stacks of gold coins inside. Turning to Govind he said, “You worked hard on your land and created a plantation. Your wife sold the produce in the market. It was your hard work which created this wealth, not magic. If I had told you this earlier, you would not have listened.” Govind understood the wisdom behind the sage’s words and worked even harder from that day on.

51. Why did Govind’s father give him large plots of land?

(a) It was his way of instilling a sense of responsibility in his son
(b) Govind was his only son and sole heir
(c) To provide Govind with sufficient funds to pursue his interest of discovering a magic potion
(d) He wanted Govind to continue to look after the tenants

52. Which of the following can be said about the sage?

(a) He was cunning and plotted with Govind’s wife to cheat him
(b) He had no magical powers as such and used to swindle people
(c) He was a good judge of people
(d) He did not deserve his good reputation

53. Why was Govind’s wife worried?

(a) Govind had no knowledge of farming and could not cultivate the land he had inherited from his father
(b) Govind had not friends because he was obsessed with finding a potion which would turn anything into gold
(c) Govind was only interested in studying under different sages and neglected his family duties
(d) Since Govind had devoted all his time and wealth to finding a magic potion they would soon be poor

54. Why did Govind’s wife help him in the fields?

A. To support her husband in his endeavour to find a magic potion.
B. The sage had advised her to help her husband succeed.
C. He needed someone to help him collect the dew.

(a) None
(b) Only A
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these

55. Why did Govind decide to cultivate a banana crop?

(a) The soil of his land was suitable only for cultivating bananas
(b) It was the most highly priced commodity in the region
(c) It could be grown at any time of the year including winter
(d) The ingredient for the magic potion could only be obtained from a banana tree.

56. What made Govind angry with the sage?

(a) The sage had conspired with Govind’s wife against him
(b) He had forgotten the magic spell and all Govind’s hard work was in vain
(c) He had lost a good deal of money in cultivating bananas
(d) The sage had made a fool of him in front of other villagers

57. How did Govind acquire his dream of gold finally?

(a) The sage gave him gold as a reward for his hard work was in vain
(b) His wife diligently saved the gold he had received from his father
(c) By selling the banana plantation
(d) His wife sold bananas at a higher price than other did.

58. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Govind was easily fooled by people.
B. Govind was preserving by nature.
C. The sage had never actually been to the Himalayas.

(a) Only A
(b) Both A and B
(c) Only C
(d) Both A and C

Directions: Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

59. SPEND

(a) pay
(b) bought
(c) devote
(d) settle

60. LYING

(a) sleeping
(b) dishonest
(c) relaxing
(d) remaining

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(PET & PST) SSC CPO Exam 2018

Important Notice

Physical Endurance Test (PET) and Physical Standard Test (PST) in Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant SubInspectors in CISF Examination 2018 is scheduled to be conducted at various centres of CAPFs w.e.f.22/07/2019 to 31/07/2019. The Admit Cards for PET/PST will be uploaded on the websites of Regional Offices of the Commission in due course.

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -3 (Numerical Aptitude)

26. A man buys 12 articles for Rs. 12/- and sells them at the rate of Rs. 1.25 per article. His gain percentage is

(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 18

27. The cost price of 15 articles is same as the selling price of 10 articles. The profit per cent is:

(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 45%

28. By selling an article for Rs. 240, a man incurrs a loss of 10%. At what price should he sell it, so that he makes a profit of 20% ?

(a) Rs. 264
(b) Rs. 288
(c) Rs. 300
(d) Rs. 320

29. A house and a shop were sold for Rs. 1 lakh each. In this transaction, the house sale resulted into 20% loss whereas the shop sale into 20% profit. The entire transaction resulted in

30. If a man estimates his loss as 20% of the selling price, then his loss per cent is

31.

(a) 3: 2: 1
(b) 1: 2: 6
(c) 1: 3: 6
(d) 2: 4: 6

32.

(a) Rs. 200, Rs. 800, Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 200, Rs. 900, Rs. 150
(c) Rs. 150, Rs. 800, Rs. 300
(d) Rs. 200, Rs. 900, Rs. 75

33. The ratio of two numbers is 3 :8 and their difference is 115. The smaller of the two numbers is

(a) 184
(b) 194
(c) 69
(d) 59

34. Between two consecutive years my incomes are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and expenses in the ratio 5 : 9. If my income in the second year is Rs. 45000 and my expenses in the first year is Rs. 25000 my total savings for the two years is

(a) Nil
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 10000
(d) Rs. 5000

35. Rs. 180 contained in a box consists of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. What is the number of 50 paise coins?

(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 150
(d) 180

36. Of the three numbers whose average is 60, the first is one fourth of the sum of the others. The first number is

(a) 30
(b) 36
(c) 42
(d) 45

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 06-June-2019 Shift-3 (Mathematics)

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SSC CGL 2018 EXAM PAPER : Held on 06-June-2019 Shift-3 (Reasoning)

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -3 (Reasoning)

1. If CONSCIOUSLY is written as PEBNPJEXNKM, then SOIL is written as

(a) NEKJ
(b) NEJK
(b) JENK
(d) ENJK

Directions: In which answer figure is the question figure embedded ?

Directions : A conclusion followed by statements I, II and III is given. Which one of the four alternatives is correct ?

4. Conclusion: Many drug addicts were arrested

Statements:
I. Taking drugs is a crime.
II. One who commits a crime can be arrested
III. Many people take drugs regularly.

(a) All the 3 statements taken together brings to the conclusion.
(b) Only I and lI statements bring to the

Conclusion.
(c) Only lI and III bring to the conclusion.
(d) Data is insufficient to draw the conclusion.

Directions : A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. Which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?

5. Statement:
One should not sleep under a tree.

Assumptions:
I. The falling leaves may spoil our clothes.
II. Trees give out CO2 at night which is injurious to health.

(a) Only I is implicit
(b) Only II is implicit
(c) Both I and II are implicit
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit

Directions : A question is followed by two statements I and II. Which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?

6. Has Electronic media improved the class room teaching ?

Statements:
I. Electronic media is multisensory based.
II. TV lessons supplement the class-room teaching.

(a) Only I is implicit
(b) Only II is implicit
(c) Both I and II are implicit
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit

7. Which of the following Venn Diagram gives the relationship between Friend, Guide and Philospher?

8. When a survey was made regarding the preferences in the watching of TV channel, a few said that they watch only ZTV channel, the others liked only Sun TV channel, while others Asianet TV Channel. A Small percentage said that they watch all the three TV channel. In the figure given below the circle indicates the Asianet TV channel, the square ZTV and the triangle the Sun TV channel. Which number in the figure indicates the fact that some people watch all the three TV channels?

9. Among the four answer figures which one can be formed from the cut out pieces given below?

10. Choose the correct image of the figure when seen in water from the responses given below

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SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (Non Technical) Exam Mock Test -2 (General Awareness)

101. Postal voting is otherwise called

(a) plural voting
(b) proxy voting
(c) weighted voting
(d) secret voting

102. Stability of the Government is assured in

(a) Parliamentary Form of Government.
(b) Presidential Form of Government.
(c) Plural Executive System
(d) Direction Democracy

103. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within

(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 1 year

104. Who is the Tennis star to become World No. 1 seed at the youngest age?

(a) Stefii Graf
(b) Monica Seles
(c) Chris Evert
(d) Martina Hingis

105. What is “Vishva Mohini”?

(a) Name for India’s Beauty Queen
(b) The title given to Lata Mangeshkar for her contribution to music
(c) An Indian ship
(d) A famous book on Indian dances

106. The main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is

(a) enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements
(b) facilitating multilateral trade relations of member countries and reviewing trade policies
(c) administering trade dispute settlement procedures
(d) None of the above

107. Name the author of the book A Passage to England

(a) E. M. Forster
(b) Nirad C. Choudhary
(c) Vikram Seth
(d) Eric Segal

108. Which is the long-range missile that was tested by Pakistan in the wake of India testing Agni II ?

(a) Ghauri II
(b) Shaheen I
(c) Hatf I
(d) Half II

109. The Indian Naval Ship being converted into a maritime museum is\

(a) Sagar Samrat
(b) Kanishka
(c) Samrat Ashoka
(d) Vikrant

110. Prof. Amartya Sen is these days in the news because :

(a) he is internationally known as a leading social economist
(b) he has been awarded ‘Bharat Ratna’
(c) he is a recipient of Nobel Prize.
(d) All of the above

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