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Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 28 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 28 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following statements correct regarding Article 35A

A) Empowers the Jammu and Kashmirstate's legislature to define “permanent resident”
B) It was added to the constitution through Presidential Order

1) A only
2) B only
3) Both A and B
4) Neither A nor B

Ques- Which of the following is correct about AFRICOM?

A. It is United States Africa Command based in Congo
B. It is a monetary union of the African Union
C. It is a military alliance of the Southern African nations
D. It is United States Africa Command based in Germany

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 26 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 26 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following is correct regarding new US South Asia policy?

1. It looks for phase-wise withdrawal of all troops from Afghanistan by 2021
2. Afghanistan wants India to fill the void created by pull off of US. Forces.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Ques- Which of the following is called as reserve money?

A. M0
B. M1
C. M2
D. M3

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 25 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 25 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following cases is popularly referred as habeas corpus case?

A. First Judge case
B. Second Judge Case
C. Sajjan Singh Case
D. ADM Jabalpur case

Ques- Which of the following is correct regarding India’s current account deficit (CAD)?

1. India’s yearly CAD in terms of GDP has continuously increased during last decade
2. India has highest trade deficit with the USA

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 24 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 24 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Consider the following statements

i) North America is surrounded by Atlantic Ocean in the East.
ii) It is surrounded by gulf of Mexico in the west
iii) Pacific ocean lies to its south

Which of the above are true?

a) i and ii
b) ii and ii
c) i only
d) ii only

Ques- Consider the following statements in the context of Directive principles of state policy.

1) Directive principle of state policy are contained in Part III of the Indian Constitution in Art. 37-51.
2) The idea of DPSP was borrowed from the constitution of Ireland.
3) Constitution of India declares that DPSPs are “fundamental in the governance of the country” (Art. 37).
4) Both the Legislature and the Executive should apply DPSPs while making and implementing policies in social & economic spheres.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 & 4 only
c) 2, 3 & 4 only
d) All of the above

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Bihar Police Driver Constable Result


Bihar Police Driver Constable Result


Bihar Police Driver Constable Result

Driver Constable List of Selected Candidates

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy : Bihar PSC

General: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 23 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 23 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following is/are correct regarding Triple Talaq?

1. ‘Triple Talaq’ is a procedure of divorce under the Sharia Law which is a body of the Islamic law
2. It has been completely abolished by SC recently

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Ques- Which of the following is/are correct regarding new South Asia policy of U.S.?

1. It asks for increased role of India in Afghanistan
2. It is sympathetic towards Pakistan

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 22 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 22 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- RERA is related to which of the following?

A. Satellite
B. Missile Launcher
C. Property
D. None of the above

Ques- Which among the following are the works of Rail Development Authority?

1. recommending passenger fares,
2. setting performance standards for rail operations
3. creating a level playing policy for private sector participation
4. All of the above

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 21 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 21 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Red line campaign is related to which of the following?

A. Curb over-the-counter sale of antibiotics
B. Increasing infrastructure in naxal affected areas
C. More generic drugs to be intrdoced
D. Integrating power grids across country

Ques- Which of the following country does not touch Mediterranean sea?

A. Tunisia
B. Serbia
C. Turkey
D. Lebanon

SSC Courses and Programs: 

GAIL (INDIA) LIMITED Assistant & Other Jobs (AUG 2017)


GAIL (INDIA) LIMITED


Notification:

CAREER OPPORTUNITIES IN VARIOUS DISCIPLINES

(A Govt. of India Undertaking - a Maharatna Company)

GAIL (India) Limited, a Maharatna PSU and India's flagship Natural Gas Company, is integrating all aspects of the Natural Gas value chain (including Exploration & Production, Processing, Transmission, Distribution and Marketing) and its related services. In a rapidly changing scenario, we are spearheading the move to a new era of clean fuel industrialization by creating a quadrilateral of green energy corridors connecting major consumption centres in India with major gas fields, LNG terminals and other cross border gas sourcing points while also expanding its business overseas, thus becoming a formidable player in the International Market.

GAIL (India) Limited, invites applications from Indian nationals for filling up following posts as per category wise vacancies (including backlog) indicated against each post in Table-I below for the work-centres/ units located in various States across the country:

SR. No. Post Grade UR SC ST OBC
(NCL)
Total Post identified as suitable to be held by PWDs in following categories
1. Foreman (Electrical) S-5 8 6 9 7 40 HH, OH (OL)
2. Foreman (Instrumentation) S-5 19 5 10 1 35 HH, OH (OL)
3. Junior Chemist  S-5 5 4 0 3 12 HH, OH (OA, OL, OAL)
4. Junior Superintendent (Official Language) S-5 2 2 1 0 5 HH, OH (OA, OL, OAL, BL), VH (B, LV)
5. Assistant (Stores & Purchase) S 3 10 0 2 3 15 HH, OH (OA, OL)
6. Accounts Assistant S 3 15 2 2 5 24 HH, OH (OA, OL, OAL, BL), VH (LV)
7. Marketing Assistant S 3 14 2 1 3 20 HH, OH (OA, OL, BL), VH (B, LV)
 

Total

83 21 25 22 151  

<< Read More

Courtesy : GAIL

General: 
Companies / Organisations: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 20 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 20 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Consider the following statements

1.national highway authority of india is not a autonomous body
2. National Housing Bank (NHB), is a wholly owned subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Which of the above statement is/are true

A. only 1
B. only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ques- Which of the following statements are correct regarding World Trade organisation?

1. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
2. Kazakhstan is the latest member to join WTO

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 19 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 19 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following is correct regarding National Human Rights commission?

1. Chairperson of NHRC are appointed by the President of India and members by the chairperson.
2. President appoints the Chairman and members of the NHRC on the recommendation of the high-powered committee headed by the Prime Minister.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Ques- Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Eelam war?

1. Armed conflict between the government of Sri Lanka and the LTTE
2. There are total of five Eelam war till date
3. Last Eelam war happened between 2006 and 2009

A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,3
D. All

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 18 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 18 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following country has recently used Prickly pear cactus for production of renewable energy?

A. Mexico
B. Colombia
C. Saudi Arabia
D. Mongolia

Ques- Consider the following pair:

Community sometimes mentioned in the news

1. Kurd : Bangladesh
2. Madhesi : Nepal
3. Rohingya : Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only

SSC Courses and Programs: 

TELANGANA PSC FOREST BEAT OFFICER JOBS


TELANGANA PSC 1800+ FOREST BEAT OFFICER JOBS


(Notification) TELANGANA STATE PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION: HYDERABAD

FOREST BEAT OFFICER IN FOREST DEPARTMENT (EFS&T) (GENERAL RECRUITMENT)

Applications are invited Online from qualified candidates through the proforma Application to be made available on Commission’s WEBSITE (www.tspsc.gov.in) to the post of Forest Beat Officer in Forest Department (EFS&T) in the state of Telangana.

Post Details:

Post Code Name of the Post No. of Vacancies Age as on 01/07/2017 Min. Max. Scale of Pay Rs.
1. Forest Beat Officer 1857 18-31 16,400 - 49,870/-


Age Limit:

Minimum 18 years & Maximum 31 years. The age is reckoned as on 01/07/2017 (Rule- 12 (1) (a) (v) of State and Subordinate Service Rules).

Minimum Age (18 years): A Candidate should not be born after 01/07/1999.

Maximum Age (31 years): A candidate should not be born before 02/07/1986.

The Upper Age limit will be relaxed as per Rules and will be calculated on the above lines.

Age Relaxations: The upper age limit prescribed above is however relaxable in the following

cases:

Sl. No. Category of candidates Relaxation of age permissible
1. 2. 3.
1. Retrenched temporary employees in the State Census Department with a minimum service of 6 months. 3 Years
2. Telangana State Government Employees (Employees of TSRTC, Corporations, Municipalities etc. are not eligible). 5 Years based on the length of regular service.
3. Ex-Service men 3 years & length of service rendered in the armed forces.
4. N.C.C.(who have worked as Instructor in N.C.C.) 3 Years & length of service rendered in the N.C.C.
5. SC/ST and BCs 5 Years

Exam FEE:

 (Remittance of Fee) Each applicant must pay Rs. 200/- (RUPEES TWO HUNDRED ONLY) towards Online Application Processing Fee. This apart, the applicants have to pay RS. 80/- (RUPEES EIGHTY ONLY) towards Examination Fee. However, the following category of candidates are exempted from payment of Examination fee.

a) SC, ST & BC candidates of Telangana State
b) Unemployed applicants in the age group of 18 to 31 years of Telangana State (They have to submit declaration at an appropriate time to the Commission that they are unemployed).
c) Ex-service men

N.B.:- BC’s, SC’s and ST’s belonging to other states are not exempted from payment of Application processing Fee and Examination Fee and they are not entitled for any kind of reservation.

Mode of Payment of Fee:

The Fee mentioned at Para-I(6)(a) is to be paid online through SBI ePay duly following online instructions once the application form details are submitted by filling TSPSC ID, date of birth and other particulars.
The fee once remitted, shall not be refunded or adjusted under any circumstances. Failure to pay the examination fee, application fee, wherever applicable will entail total rejection of application. The list of Banks providing service for the purpose of online remittance of fee is given in ANNEXURE – II.

HOW TO APPLY:

A) HOW TO UPLOAD THE APPLICATION FORM:

(i) The Applicants have to read the User Guide for Online Submission of Applications and then proceed further.

I Step: The Candidate has to visit the WEBSITE http://www.tspsc.gov.in and fill the OTR application if not registered earlier to obtain TSPSC ID. While filling the same, the candidates have to ensure that there are no mistakes in it. The Commission bears no responsibility for the mistakes, if any, made by the candidates.

II STEP: The candidates have to visit the website http://www.tspsc.gov.in to submit Application and Click on the Link with Notification Number and Name, provide TSPSC ID and Date of Birth to proceed further.

Candidate has to verify the details fetched from various databases pertaining to qualification, caste, Aadhar etc, and displayed on the screen. If the displayed details are correct he/she has to click Yes on confirm button. If any details are not displayed or need to be changed, he/she should click No on confirm button. If details are not displayed a text box will open and candidate has to feed the details manually. Required documents have to be uploaded by clicking the upload button. In addition to the details obtained from OTR database, Notification specific details such as Examination Centre opted, required qualification, university details, eligibility and accepting declarations etc. are to be filled by the candidate. Preview and Edit facility is available to make changes and submit for proceeding to Next step of making online payment of fee.

III STEP:-Immediately on entering the above details, the applicant will get payment gateway of SBI ePay.

IV STEP:-The applicant should pay the prescribed fee as specified through any of the four modes of payment online. Separate instructions have to be followed for each mode of payment.

V STEP:-After payment of fee, the PDF Application will be generated which contains the particulars furnished by the candidates. The ID No in the PDF Application form has to be quoted for future reference/correspondence.

i) Candidate shall note that, the details available with OTR database at the time of submitting the application will be considered for the purpose of this notification. If, any changes are made by the candidate to OTR database at a later date will not be considered for the purpose of this Notification.

ii) Hand written/ Typed/ Photostat copies/ outside printed Application Form will not be accepted and liable for rejection.

iii) The applicants should be willing to serve anywhere in Telangana State.

iv) For any Technical problems related to Online submission and downloading of Hall Tickets please contact 040-23120301 or 040-23120302(Call Time: 10.30 A.M to 1.00 P.M & 1.30 P.M to 5.30 P.M)

PROCEDURE OF SELECTION:

THE SELECTION OF CANDIDATES FOR APPOINTMENT TO THE POSTS WILL BE MADE BY WRITTEN EXAMINATION (OBJECTIVE TYPE), WALKING TEST AND MEDICAL TEST AS PER RULES FOR THOSE QUALIFIED IN WRITTEN EXAMINATION.

i) Examination (Objective Type) by Online / OMR based.

ii) Walking Test

iii) Medical Test

THE FINAL SELECTION OF THESE POSTS WILL BE BASED ON MARKS SECURED IN THE EXAMINATION EITHER ONLINE OR OMR BASED, DULY GIVING WEIGHTAGE (BONUS MARKS) TO THE NCC CERTIFICATE HOLDERS AS PER RULES.

1. Those candidates who qualify in the Examination in order of merit will be called for verification of Certificates, Community and Category wise for the vacancies available as required. The minimum qualifying marks for Selection are OCs 40%, BCs 35% SCs and STs 30%. The minimum qualifying marks are relaxable in the case of SC/ST/BC at the discretion of the Commission.

2. The candidates will be selected and allotted to Service/ Department as per their rank in the merit list and as per District Preference for allotment of candidates against vacancies and for the vacancies available.

N.B.: Mere securing minimum qualifying marks does not vest any right in a candidate for being considered for selection.

3. The appearance in all the paper/papers at the Written Examination as per rules is compulsory. Absence in any of the paper/papers will automatically render his candidature as disqualified.

4. Candidates have to produce Original documents and other particulars on the day of verification itself. If candidate fails to produce any of the required certificates and if the particulars furnished by him / her in the Application do not tally with the Original documents produced him / her, then his / her candidature will be rejected/disqualified without any further correspondence. As candidature for the recruitment is processed through Computer/Electronic devices based on the particulars furnished in the Application Form, the candidate is advised to fill in all the relevant particulars carefully.

5. The preference opted by candidates in respect of posts, District etc., in the application form are only indicative for being considered to the extent possible but not binding or limiting the Commission’s powers conferred under Article 315 and 320 of the Constitution of India. Therefore, the Commission has the power to assign a successful candidate to any of the notified posts for which he/she is qualified and eligible, subject to fulfilling the
selection criterion. Mere claim of preference for any District for allotment against vacancy does not confer a right to selection for that District in particular or any District in General.

6. The appointment of selected candidates will be subject to their being found medically fit in the appropriate Medical Examination, and if he/she is of sound health, active habits free from any bodily defect or infirmity.

SCHEME AND SYLLABUS FOR THE POST OF FOREST BEAT OFFICERS IN FOREST DEPARTMENT (EFS&T)

Scheme of Examination

Written Examination (Objective Type) No. of Questions Duration (Minutes) Maximum Marks
Paper. I. General Knowledge 100 90 100
Paper. II. General Mathematics 100 90 100
  Total 200

Click Here For Full Notification

APPLICATION FOR RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL TEACHERS Direct Recruitment

General: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 17 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 17 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following is correct regarding National list of essential medicines?

1. National list of essential medicines is recommended by WHO and all countries must have medicines recommended by WHO in the list
2. Oxygen is part of MLEM

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Ques- Which of the following is correct regarding SpaceX?

A. It is a one of NASA’s two prime shippers for station supplies
B. It is a satellite launched by NASA to Mars
C. It is a satellite launched by EU to study Universe
D. None of the above

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 16 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 16 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Consider the following statements about AFSPA

1.Armed force special power act of parliament which passed in 1958
2.Recently afspa has been revoked from Nagaland after 18 years

which of the above statements is/are true

A. only 1
B. only 2
C. neither 1 nor 2
D. Both 1 & 2

Ques- Mercosur is a custom union between countries of which of the following continents?

A. North America
B. South America
C. Africa
D. None of the above

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 15 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 15 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- Which of the following is the vaccine for Japanese Encephalitis is?

A. Live (mutant) vaccine
B. Killed vaccine
C. Live (attenuated) vaccine
D. Live (recombinant) vaccine

Ques- McMohan Line represents boundary between which two countries?

A. India and Pakistan
B. USA and Canada
C. India and China
D. Pakistan and Afghanistan

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 14 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 14 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (I0R-ARC)’, consider the following statements :

1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
(e) Neither I nor 2

Ques- Which of following statements are correct regarding Repo rate.

a) Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country lends money to commercial bank.
b) Central banks decrease repo rate in case of inflation

1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) Neither a nor b

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 13 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 13 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques- CRISPR-Cas9 has been in news recently. Which of the following is correct regarding CRISPR-Cas9?

A. It is a system used by bacterial cells to recognise and destroy viral DNA as a form of adaptive immunity
B. It is a tool which is designed to detect TB
C. It is handy tool a which is designed to test air pollution
D. None of the above

Ques- Which of the following lines forms border between North and South Korea?

A. 28th parallel north
B. 48th parallel north
C. 38th parallel north
D. 58th parallel north

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 12 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 12 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Question 1) Central Board of Film Certification chairman is appointed by?

A) President
B) Government
C) Governor
D) Prime minister

Question 2) Who among the following served two consecutive terms as Vice President?

A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
B) V.V. Giri
C) K.R. Narayanan
D) Mohd. Hamid Ansari

1) A and B
2) B and C
3) A and D
4) A,C,D

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 11 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 11 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Question 1) Guam island is located in which ocean?

A) Indian ocean
B) Pacific ocean
C) Atlantic ocean
D) Artic ocean

Question 2) Cholera is caused by?

A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Fungii
D) None of the above

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Haryana SSC ADVT No 9/2017


Haryana SSC ADVT


Haryana SSC ADVT No 9/2017

Notification:

Online applications are invited lltrr direct recruit.ment of unLd.er mentioned categories of posts using the website of HARYIINA STAFF SELECTION COMMISSITON i.e. wnrw.hssc.qov.in. The online application can ber filled up from !11.08.2017 to 2Oy11g.2tt1-7 till 11.59 P.M, therealfter website link will be dis;zrbled. The candidates are strictly advised to apply online well in advance without waiting for lrast date of submission of online applicarlion form. The candidates are advised to check all the particulars frllecl up by them in applicallion form and also ensure the correctness of uploadbd certificates before finally submitting the application as no request for change of any particu.lar shall be entertained by ttre Comrnission. No offline application lbrm or copy of downloadr:d application fo:rm will be accepted by the office. Qualification/eligibility conditions and other documents will be determirred with regard to last date fixed to apply online applications also called as closing date i.e. 2O,,Og.2O1?z gi.ven in the advertisement. No candidate who does not lhrlfill the qualificertion/eligibility condit,ion on cutoff date need not to apply. No confidential ::esult qua minilnum qualification shall be entertained. The details of the posts are as under: -

Post Name:

119 post of Computer Instrructor (Re-Advertised).

92 post of Instructor Ernployabiltty SkiU.

112 post of Computer Operator and Programming Assistant Instructor (Re -Advertised)

18 post of craft rnstrurctor (womenf (Hatr & skin caref(Re- Advertised.)

19 post of craft Instructor (woment (Hair & skln care)(Re. Advertised)

22 post of Craft Instructor (Women) Dress Making (Re-Advertised)

22 post of craft rnstructor (womenf Dress Making( (Rr-Advertised)

20 post of craft rnstrrrctor (womenf cutting & sewing (Re- Advertised)

20 post of craft Instrucrtor (woment cutting & sewing (ReAdtvertised)

19 post Language Teacher Hindi (Re-Advertised)

5 post Cmft Instructor Health Sanitary Inspector.

5 post Craft Instructor Health Sanitary Inspector

23 post Language Teacher English.

19 post Craft Instructor Stenography Hindi (Re-Advertised)

17 post Craft Instructor Sternography Hindi (Re-Advertised)

22 post craft Instructor stenography English (Re-Advertised)

22 post craft Instructor Stenography English (Re-Advertised)

8 post Craft Instructor (Women) Computer Aided Embroidery.

8 post craft Instructor (women) computer Aided Embroidery.

8 post Craft Instructor (Women) (Embroidery and needle workf (Re-Adtvertised)

9 post Craft Instructor (Wonnen) (Embroidery and needle work) (Re-Advertised)

3 post craft Instructor (women) Fashion Technology (Re-Advertised)

4 post Craft Instructor (Womenf Fashion Techrnology (Re-Advertised)

5 post of Craft Instructor Ar,chitectural Assistant .

5 post of Craft Instructor Architectural Assistant .

15 post of Instructor Millwright Mechanic (Electrflcal/ Electronicsf (Re-Advertised).

16 post of craft Instructor Millwright Mechanie (Electrical/ Electronicsf (Re-Advertised).

33 post of Instructor Millwright Mechanic (Mechanical) (Re-Adrertised)

33 post of Instructor Millwright Mechanic (Mechanical) (Re-Adrertised)

38 post of Craft Instructor Wireman (Re-Advertised)

38 post of Craft Instructor Wireman (Re-Advertised)

31 post of Craft Instructor Carpenter (Re-Advertised).

34 post of Craft Instructor Carpenter (Re-Advertised)

7 prost of Craft Instructor Instrument Mechanic.

7 post of Craft Instructor Instrument Mechanic.

47 post of Craft Instructor Mechanic Refrigeration & Air-Cornditioning (Re-Advertised)

48 post of craft Instructor Mechanic Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning (Re-Advertised).

46 post of Craft Instructor Plumber (Re-Advertised)

45 post of Craft instructorr Plumber (Re-Advertised).

27 post of Craft lnstructorr Painter General) (Re-Advertised)

26 post of Craft Instructorr Painter General (Re-Advertised)

23 post of Craft Instructor Mechanic Diesel (Re-Advertised)

21 post of craft Instructor Mechanic Diesel (Re-Advertised).

52 post of Craft Instructor Draughtsman Civil (Re-Advertised).

52 post of Craft Instructorr Draughtsman Civil (Re-Advertised)

29 post of Craft Instructor Draughtsman Mechantcal(Re-Advertised)

29 post of Craft Instructor Draughtsman Mechanical(Re-Advertised)

33 post of Craft Instructor Machinist (Re-Advertised)

33 post of craft Instructor Machinist (Re-Advertised)

Relaxation in Age:

i) In the case of Scheduled Caste (SC), Backward Class (A) & Backward Crlass (B) and EBPG the upper age limit is relaxable as per Haryana Govt. instructions. ii) In the case of PHC General Candidates, the upper age limit is relaxable by 10 years (15 years for SCs/BCsr) as per Haryana Governmr:nt instructions No. 22/IOJ2OIC-fCS-ltt, dated I5.O7.2074.

iii) For Ex-servicemen Candidates, relaxation up to continuous Military senrice added by three years is perrrrissible.

iv) The upper age limit in respect of widow, legertly separated woman, divorc:ee, deserted woman and unmarried ivoman will be upto 47 years as per Government insrlructions.

Fee Detail:

Sr.No. Category of post General SC/Bc/EBPG candidates
Haryana State of only
Male/Female Female Haryana resident of only Male Female
1. 1 to 49 Rs. 150/- Rs.75/- Rs. 35/- Rs. 18/-
3. Physically Handicapped/ ExServiceman of Hiarvana No Charges

Important Dates:

Opening date for submission of onllne applicationrs 21.08.2017

Closing date for submirssion of online applications 20.09.2017 (by 11:59 PM)

Closing date for deposit of fee 25.09.2017 (by 11:59 PM)

Click Here For Official Notification

Location: 
General: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 10 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 10 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques 1) Do or Die slogan is associated to which movement?

A) 1857 revolt
B) Quit India
C) Non-Cooperation
D) Civil Disobedience

Ques2) On which island of Japan, Tokyo is located?

A) Shikoku
B) Hokkaido
C) Honshu
D) Kyushu

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 9 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 9 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques 1) The oath of Supreme court judge is administered by?

A) Chief Justice of India
B) Lok Sabha speaker
C) President
D) Governor

Ques 2) Cabinet committee on Economic Affairs is chaired by

A) Finance Minister
B) Prime Minister
C) Opposition leader
D) Defence Minister

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 8 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 8 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques 1) Article 256 is related to?

A) Obligation of States and the Union.
B) Legislation for giving effect to international agreements.
C) Residuary powers of legislation.
D) Extent of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States.

Ques 2) ‘Operation clean money’ is related to?

A) To investigate tax evaders
B) Disinvestment
C) Pension
D) None of the above

SSC Courses and Programs: 

SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-2 (Quantitative Aptitude)

SSC PO Papers


SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-2

(Quantitative Aptitude)


QID : 301 - If N = (√8 + √6)/(√8 - √6), then what is the value of N - (1/N)?

Options:

1) 8√3
2) 14
3) 7
4) 0

Correct Answer: 8√3

QID : 303 - What is the value of positive square root of 14 + 6√5?

Options:

1) 3 + √5
2) 3 - √5
3) 5 + √3
4) 5 - √3

Correct Answer: 3 + √5

QID : 304 -

Options:

1) 1.2
2) 0.8
3) 1
4) 1.4

Correct Answer: 1

QID : 305 - A boy added all natural numbers from 1 to 10, however he added one number twice due to which the sum becomes 58. What is the number which he added twice?

Options:

1) 3
2) 4
3) 7
4) 8

Correct Answer: 3

QID : 306 - Ram is five times as efficient as Rohit. Ram can complete a work in 60 days less than Rohit. If both of them work together then in how many days the work would be completed ?

Options:

1) 10
2) 12.5
3) 15
4) 20

Correct Answer: 12.5

QID : 307 - A and B together can complete a work in 20 days. They started together but after 4 days A left the work. The remaining work was completed by B alone in 24 more days. In how many days can A complete the entire work alone?

Options:

1) 75
2) 25
3) 45
4) 60

Correct Answer: 60

QID : 308 - What will be the net discount (in percentage) after two successive discounts of 20% and 10%?

Options:

1) 28
2) 30
3) 32
4) 42

Correct Answer: 28

QID : 309 - An article is sold for Rs 4080 after a discount of 15%. What is the marked price (in Rs) of the article?

Options:

1) 4600
2) 4800
3) 4950
4) 5150

Correct Answer: 4800

QID : 310 - A, B and C are partners and invest in a business. A invests 1/5th of total and B invests 1/4th of the total. What is the ratio of profit of A, B and C respectively?

Options:

1) 5 : 4 : 9
2) 5 : 4 : 1
3) 4 : 5 : 1
4) 4 : 5 : 11

Correct Answer: 4 : 5 : 11

QID : 311 - Three bottles of equal capacity contain mixture of milk and water in ratio 2 : 3, 3 : 5 and 4 : 5 respectively. These three bottles are emptied into a large bottle. What is the ratio of milk and water respectively in the large bottle?

Options:

1) 439 : 1080
2) 439 : 641
3) 439 : 360
4) 439 : 79

Correct Answer: 439 : 641

QID : 312 - What is the average of first 17 odd numbers?

Options:

1) 16
2) 17
3) 18
4) 19

Correct Answer: 17

QID : 313 - The average of 4 consecutive even numbers is 51. What is the third number?

Options:

1) 46
2) 52
3) 54
4) 56

Correct Answer: 52

QID : 314 - Rohit buys an old bat for Rs 1230 and spends Rs 180 on its repairs. If he sells it for Rs 1128, then what is his loss percentage?

Options:

1) 12.5
2) 15
3) 20
4) 25

Correct Answer: 20

QID : 315 - A trader sells two articles for Rs 1875 each. If he gains 25% on one and losses 25% on other, then what is the value (in Rs) of the loss?

Options:

1) 150
2) 250
3) 400
4) 500

Correct Answer: 250

QID : 316 - If the price of milk increases from Rs 60/kg to Rs 70/kg, then by what percentage a person should decrease the consumption of milk so that expenditure remains same?

Options:

1) 16.66
2) 14.28
3) 12.33
4) 17.33

Correct Answer: 14.28

QID : 317 - If length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and breadth is increased by 30%, then what will be the percentage increase in the area of rectangle?

Options:

1) 50
2) 46
3) 56
4) 62

Correct Answer: 56

QID : 318 - Two cars are travelling towards each other with speeds of 45 km/hr and 63 km/hr respectively. What is the distance (in kilometres) between the two cars ten second before they collide?

Options:

1) 0.5
2) 0.2
3) 0.3
4) 0.45

Correct Answer: 0.3

QID : 319 - 29 boys are standing in a line such that distance between any two consecutive boys is same. A teacher takes 7 seconds to reach from first boy to 15thboy. How much more time (in seconds) will he take to reach the 22nd boy?

Options:

1) 2.5
2) 3
3) 3.5
4) 4

Correct Answer: 3.5

QID : 320 - If a certain sum becomes 2 times in 5 years at compound interest, then in how many years, it will become 8 times?

Options:

1) 10
2) 20
3) 15
4) 30

Correct Answer: 15

QID : 321 - A certain sum becomes Rs 840 in 3 years and Rs 1200 in 7 years at simple interest. What is the value (in Rs.) of principal?

Options:

1) 520
2) 570
3) 620
4) 670

Correct Answer: 570

What is the total number of players playing all three games in 2015?

Options:

1) 950
2) 900
3) 1000
4) 1050

Correct Answer: 1000

QID : 323 -

Number of players playing football in 2016 is how much percent less than the players playing football in 2014?

Options:

1) 14.28
2) 16.66
3) 33.33
4) 8.33

Correct Answer: 16.66

QID : 324 -

Number of players playing hockey in 2015 is what percent of total players playing all the three games in 2015?

Options:

1) 25
2) 33.33
3) 22
4) 28

Correct Answer: 25

General: 
Exams: 

SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-1 (Quantitative Aptitude)

SSC PO Papers


SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-1

(Quantitative Aptitude)


QID : 101 - The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is always divisible by ____.

Options:

1) 3
2) 9
3) 15
4) 21

Correct Answer: 3

QID : 102 - A boy added all natural numbers from 1 to 20. However he added one number twice, due to which the sum becomes 215. What is the number which he added twice?

Options:

1) 5
2) 7
3) 11
4) 15

Correct Answer: 5

QID : 103 - 6/7 part of a tank is filled with oil. After taking out 60 litres of oil the tank is 4/5 part full. What is the capacity (in litres) of the tank?

Options:

1) 350
2) 700
3) 360
4) 1050

Correct Answer: 1050

QID : 104 - For what value of N, 34N will be a perfect cube, where 34N is a 3 digit number?

Options:

1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

Correct Answer: 3

QID : 105 -

QID : 106 - P, Q and R together can complete a work in 40 days. P and Q together can complete the same work in 90 days. Then R alone can complete the same work in how many days?

Options:

1) 40
2) 72
3) 84
4) 90

Correct Answer: 72

QID : 107 - A alone can complete the work in 10 days, B alone can do same work in 12 days and C alone can do the same work in 15 days. They jointly complete the work and earn Rs 4500. What is the share of C?

Options:

1) 1800
2) 900
3) 1200
4) 1500

Correct Answer: 1200

QID : 108 - 3/4 of marked price is equal to 5/6 of selling price. What is the discount percent?

Options:

1) 12.5
2) 10
3) 15
4) 11.11

Correct Answer: 10

QID : 109 - An article having marked price Rs 2400 is sold for Rs 1872. What is the discount percentage?

Options:

1) 21
2) 22
3) 24
4) 26

Correct Answer: 22

QID : 110 - If 3P = 2Q and 2Q = 3R, then what is P : Q : R?

Options:

1) 6 : 9 : 1
2) 2 : 3 : 2
3) 4 : 6 : 9
4) 4 : 6 : 1

Correct Answer: 2 : 3 : 2

QID : 111 - The ratio of the speed of Aman, Kamal and Manan is 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. What is the ratio of the time taken by Aman, Kamal and Manan respectively to cover the same distance?

Options:

1) 10 : 12 : 15
2) 6 : 5 : 4
3) 4 : 5 : 6
4) 15 : 12 : 10

Correct Answer: 15 : 12 : 10

QID : 112 - Average of 36 results is 18. If 2 is subtracted from each result, then what will be the new average of the results?

Options:

1) 9
2) 16
3) 17
4) 17.5

Correct Answer: 16

QID : 113 - The average marks obtained by 140 students in an examination is 90. If the average marks of passed students is 120 and the number of students who failed the examination are 90, then what is the average marks of students who failed the examination?

Options:

1) 60
2) 73.33
3) 85.66
4) 88

Correct Answer: 73.33

QID : 114 - A shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a 930 gm weight instead of 1 kilogram weight. What will be the profit percentage of the shopkeeper?

Options:

1) 3.76
2) 7.52
3) 9.85
4) 10.36

Correct Answer: 7.52

QID : 115 -

Options:

1) 50
2) 66.66
3) 75
4) 87.5

Correct Answer: 87.5

QID : 116 - If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, then what will be the percentage increase in the area of circle?

Options:

1) 225
2) 125
3) 150
4) 175

Correct Answer: 125

QID : 117 - If the height of cylinder is increased by 35% and radius is increased by 10%, then what will be the percentage increase in curved surface area of cylinder?

Options:

1) 46.5
2) 45
3) 48.5
4) 49.7

Correct Answer: 48.5

QID : 118 - A boat goes 2 km upstream and 3 km downstream in 20 minutes. It goes 7 km upstream and 2 km downstream in 53 minutes. What is speed (in km/h) of the boat in still water?

Options:

1) 75/7
2) 120/7
3) 135/7
4) 150/7

Correct Answer: 135/7

QID : 119 - A train can travel 25% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 165 km away at the same time. On the way the train takes 40 minutes for stopping at the stations. What is the difference in the speeds (in km/hr) of train and car?

Options:

1) 6.375
2) 7.635
3) 9.75
4) 12.375

Correct Answer: 12.375

QID : 120 - An amount was lent for one year at the rate of 18% per annum compounding annually. Had the compounding been done half yearly, the interest would have increased by 324. What was the amount (in Rs) lent?

Options:

1) 32000
2) 36000
3) 40000
4) 72000

Correct Answer: 40000

QID : 121 - A certain sum becomes 5 times in 3 years, at simple interest, then in how many years it will become 13 times?

Options:

1) 6
2) 15
3) 9
4) 12

Correct Answer: 9

QID : 122 -

What is the total runs scored by Kohli against 5 teams?

Options:

1) 5000
2) 4800
3) 4700
4) 4500

Correct Answer: 4800

QID : 123 -

What is the difference between the total runs scored by Kohli against the teams Q and R and total runs scored by Sharma against the teams Q and R?

Options:

1) 200
2) 400
3) 900
4) 800

Correct Answer: 800

QID : 124 -

Runs scored by Kohli against team S is how much percent less than the runs scored by Sharma against team S?

Options:

1) 70.21
2) 68.33
3) 58.33
4) 41.66

Correct Answer: 58.33

QID : 125 -

Total runs scored by Sharma against 5 teams is what percent of total runs scored by Kohli against 5 teams?

Options:

1) 104.16
2) 96
3) 98.13
4) 108.24

Correct Answer: 104.16

QID : 126 - If the height of a given cone becomes four times and the radius of the base becomes twice, then what is the ratio of the volume of the given cone and the volume of the new cone?

Options:

1) 1 : 4
2) 1 : 8
3) 1 : 16
4) 1 : 32

Correct Answer: 1 : 16

QID : 127 - Parallel sides of a trapezium are 26 cm and 40 cm and the area is 792 cm2. What is the value of the distance (in cm) between parallel sides?

Options:

1) 24
2) 48
3) 12
4) 36

Correct Answer: 24

QID : 128 - The area of a circle is same as the area of a square. What is the ratio of the diameter of the circle and diagonal of the square?

Options:

1) 1 : √π
2) 2 : √π
3) √2 : √π
4) 1 : π

Correct Answer: √2 : √π

QID : 129 - If the perimeter of a rhombus is 40 cm and one of its diagonal is 16 cm, then what is the area (in cm2) of the rhombus?

Options:

1) 72
2) 48
3) 96
4) 192

Correct Answer: 96

QID : 130 - Two identical circles intersects so that their centres and the points at which they intersect form a square of side 2 cm. What is the area (in cm2) of the portion that is common to the two circles?

Options:

1) 2π - 4
2) 4π - 8
3) 3π - 4
4) π - 2

Correct Answer: 2π - 4

QID : 131 - If x - y = 3, then what is the value of x3 - y3 - 9xy?

Options:

1) 3
2) 9
3) 18
4) 27

Correct Answer: 27

QID : 132 -

Options:

1) 54
2) 108
3) 702
4) 810

Correct Answer: 702

QID : 133 -

Options:

1) 0
2) 1
3) 3
4) 6

Correct Answer: 0

QID : 134 -

General: 
Subjects: 
Exams: 

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 5 August 2017


Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 5 August 2017

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques 1) What is IRNSS-1A?

A) Navigation satellite
B) Robot
C) Electronic car
D) None of the above

Ques 2) Which of the following countries are part of Horn of Africa

A) Somalia
B) Ethiopia
C) Egypt
D) Djibouti
E) Eritrea 

1) A,B,C
2) A,C,D,E
3) A,B,C,D,E
4) A,B,D,E

SSC Courses and Programs: 

SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-2 (General Intelligence and Reasoning)

SSC PO Papers


SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-2

(General Intelligence and Reasoning)


 QID : 201 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Book : Pages : : Ladder : ?

Options:

1) Steps
2) Walking
3) Parts
4) Levels

Correct Answer: Steps

QID : 202 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Binocular : View : : ? : ?

Options:

1) Shovel : Scoop
2) Spanner : Guard
3) Tongs : Bore
4) Chisel : Grind

Correct Answer: Shovel : Scoop

QID : 203 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

ABC : FFF : : MDP : ?

Options:

1) RRR
2) HHH
3) RHS
4) RSH

Correct Answer: RHS

QID : 204 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

JMPQ : HKNO : : LCOP : ?

Options:

1) JANM
2) JAMN
3) MAJP
4) JANN

Correct Answer: JAMN

QID : 205 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

11 : 1331 : : 12 : ?

Options:

1) 1728
2) 728
3) 1528
4) 1628

Correct Answer: 1728

QID : 206 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

6 : 215 : : 8 : ?

Options:

1) 510
2) 511
3) 512
4) 520

Correct Answer: 511

QID : 207 - In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

Options:

1) Dog : Puppy
2) Horse : Mare
3) Sheep : Lamb
4) Cow : Calf

Correct Answer: Horse : Mare

QID : 208 - In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

Options:

1) Quadrilateral : Four
2) Octagon : Eight
3) Decagon : Ten
4) Heptagon : Six

Correct Answer: Heptagon : Six

QID : 209 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Options:

1) SZ
2) BJ
3) PW
4) MT

Correct Answer: BJ

QID : 210 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Options:

1) BY
2) DW
3) FT
4) KP

Correct Answer: FT

QID : 211 - In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

Options:

1) 11 – 44
2) 8 – 34
3) 6 – 18
4) 12 – 72

Correct Answer: 8 – 34

QID : 212 - In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

Options:

1) 72 – 92
2) 33 – 53
3) 89 – 129
4) 60 – 80

Correct Answer: 89 – 129

QID : 213 - Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Pinned
2. Provoke
3. Pasture
4. Pale
5. Pond

Options:

1) 41352
2) 43152
3) 43512
4) 43215

Correct Answer: 43152

QID : 214 - Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Pebble
2. Pager
3. Protect
4. Pest
5. Pray

Options:

1) 21453
2) 24153
3) 25143
4) 25413

Correct Answer: 21453

QID : 215 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

MP, OR, QT, SV, ?

Options:

1) UX
2) TW
3) TU
4) XU

Correct Answer: UX

QID : 216 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AAZ, CDX, EGV, ?

Options:

1) FGT
2) GIT
3) GHT
4) GJT

Correct Answer: GJT

QID : 217 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

2, 3, 8, 27, ?

Options:

1) 76
2) 84
3) 112
4) 124

Correct Answer: 112

QID : 218 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

3, 17, 73, 297, ?

General: 
Exams: 

SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-2 (General Knowledge and General Awareness)

SSC PO Papers


SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-2

(General Knowledge and General Awareness)


QID : 251 - Which of the following is the prime reason for inflation?

Options:

1) Decrease in money supply
2) Increase in money supply
3) Decrease in supply of goods
4) Increase in government cash

Correct Answer: Increase in money supply

QID : 252 - What is Disposable Personal Income?

Options:

1) Personal Income + Subsidies
2) Personal Income – Subsidies
3) Personal Income – Direct Taxes
4) Personal Income – Indirect Taxes

Correct Answer: Personal Income – Direct Taxes

QID : 253 - What is the full form of CRR?

Options:

1) Cash Return Ratio
2) Cash Reserve Ratio
3) Cash Revenue Ratio
4) Cash Return Reserve

Correct Answer: Cash Reserve Ratio

QID : 254 - Which among the following is used to measure slope of indifference curve?

Options:

1) Marginal Rate of Transformation
2) Marginal Rate of Substitution
3) Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution
4) None of these

Correct Answer: Marginal Rate of Substitution

QID : 255 - 'Food For Work Programme' was introduced at time of which Five Year Plan?

Options:

1) Fifth
2) Tenth
3) Seventh
4) Ninth

Correct Answer: Tenth

QID : 256 - Which type of federalism is seen in India?

Options:

1) Coming together federation
2) Holding together federation
3) Coming together federation and Holding together federation both
4) None of these

Correct Answer: Holding together federation

QID : 257 -

Options:

1) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
2) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
3) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
4) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c

Correct Answer: 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

QID : 258 - A _____ government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizen right.

Options:

1) Autocratic
2) Democratic
3) Monarchic
4) Authoritarian

Correct Answer: Democratic

QID : 259 - What are the maximum number of seats fixed for Lok Sabha in India?

Options:

1) 545 seats
2) 552 seats
3) 560 seats
4) 550 seats

Correct Answer: 552 seats

QID : 260 - Which of the following article deals with the appointment of Prime Minster of India?

Options:

1) Article 356
2) Article 32
3) Article 75
4) Article 348

Correct Answer: Article 75

QID : 261 - Who among the following issues a notification for prorogation of legislative session?

Options:

1) Speaker
2) Chairman
3) President
4) Prime Minister

Correct Answer: President

QID : 262 - Which of the following fundamental right has been deleted from Indian Constitution?

Options:

1) Right to freedom
2) Right to speech
3) Right to property
4) Right to equality

Correct Answer: Right to property

QID : 263 - Which among the following writ is issued by a court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties?

Options:

1) Prohibition
2) Mandamus
3) Quo Warranto
4) Habeas Corpus

Correct Answer: Mandamus

QID : 264 - In which century, Qutub Minar of Delhi was built?

Options:

1) 12th Century
2) 13th Century
3) 14th Century
4) 11th Century

Correct Answer: 12th Century

QID : 265 - Shatughai (Indus Valley Civilization site) is in which country?

Options:

1) India
2) Pakistan
3) Afghanistan
4) Tibet

Correct Answer: Afghanistan

QID : 266 - Who was the founder of Indian National Congress?

Options:

1) Mahatma Gandhi
2) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3) A.O. Hume
4) W.C. Banerjee

Correct Answer: A.O. Hume

QID : 267 - Who among of the following constructed the Panch Mahal at Fatehpur Sikri?

Options:

1) Akbar
2) Jahangir
3) Shahjahan
4) Aurangzeb

Correct Answer: Akbar

QID : 268 - Mohenjo-daro was locally named as ________.

Options:

1) Mound of desert
2) Mound of delta
3) Mound of dead
4) Mound of life

Correct Answer: Mound of dead

QID : 269 - On which of the following date, winter solstice is observed in Southern Hemisphere?

Options:

1) 5th August
2) 10th August
3) 15th February
4) 21th June

Correct Answer: 21th June

QID : 270 - Which of the following pair is CORRECT?

I. Prime Meridian – Longitude
II. Tropic of Cancer – Latitude
III. Equator – Latitude

Options:

1) I and II
2) I and III
3) II and III
4) All options are correct

Correct Answer: All options are correct

QID : 271 - Stalagmite is a kind of special deposition that is caused by which of the following?

Options:

1) Glacier
2) Wind
3) Surface water
4) Underground water

Correct Answer: Underground water

QID : 272 - Which of the following water current is not a cold current?

Options:

1) Humbolt current
2) Brazil current
3) Oyashio current
4) Canary current

Correct Answer: Brazil current

QID : 273 - Which of the following clouds are responsible for rainfall?

Options:

1) Cumulonimbus
2) Cumulostratus
3) Cumulocirrus
4) Altocumulus

General: 
Exams: 

SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-2 (English Comprehension)

SSC PO Papers


SSC CPO Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 05 July 2017" Shift-2

(English Comprehension)


QID : 351 - In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Roshni always want (1)/ to get the best of facilities (2)/ whether she deserves it or not. (3)/ No Error (4)

Options:

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Correct Answer: 1

QID : 352 - In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Rohan's mother advised (1)/ him not to drive the (2)/ car lately at night. (3)/ No Error (4)

Options:

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Correct Answer: 3

QID : 353 - In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

I insisted but neither Praveen or his (1)/ friend Bharat is ready (2)/ to work on holiday. (3)/ No Error (4)

Options:

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Correct Answer: 1

QID : 354 - In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Prabhat is impressed by his (1)/ younger brother because he is cleverer (2)/ and amusing than he is. (3)/ No Error (4)

Options:

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Correct Answer: 3

QID : 355 - In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

In order to reach his office on time (1)/ Rohan has jogged two miles a day (2)/ until he bought his bike. (3)/ No Error (4)

Options:]

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Correct Answer: 2

QID : 356 - In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

My house is adjacent _____ Central park.

Options:

1) to
2) with
3) of
4) from

Correct Answer: to

QID : 357 - In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

I prefer walking _____ jogging because I enjoy the gentle exercise of walking much more than jogging.

Options:

1) than
2) while
3) to
4) upon

Correct Answer: to

QID : 358 - In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Rohan _____ for this company since 2007.

Options:

1) has been working
2) is working
3) had worked
4) worked

Correct Answer: has been working

QID : 359 - In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Though he is old _____ he is strong.

Options:

1) but
2) yet
3) till
4) although

Correct Answer: yet

QID : 360 - In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

She is a little suspicious _____ Naraine's true intentions.

Options:

1) on
2) of
3) with
4) for

Correct Answer: of

QID : 361 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Antipathy

Options:

1) Clumsy
2) Dislike
3) Annoying
4) Afraid

Correct Answer: Dislike

QID : 362 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Dearth

Options:

1) reduce
2) contrast
3) shortage
4) glorify

Correct Answer: shortage

QID : 363 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Piquant

Options:

1) distressing
2) gabble
3) appealing
4) pliable

Correct Answer: appealing

QID : 364 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Presumptuous

Options:

1) arrogant
2) negligent
3) resonant
4) assumption

Correct Answer: arrogant

QID : 365 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Stentorian

Options:

1) loyal and committed
2) extremely loud
3) unnecessary
4) very strict

Correct Answer: extremely loud

QID : 366 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Tedious

Options:

1) ambiguity
2) interesting
3) incidental
4) devotional

Correct Answer: interesting

QID : 367 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Turbulent

Options:

1) vivacious
2) peaceful
3) prophecy
4) affirm

Correct Answer: peaceful

QID : 368 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Ulterior

Options:

1) damp
2) hoarse
3) defiant
4) overt

Correct Answer: overt

QID : 369 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Vanity

Options:

1) zest
2) abdicate
3) conceit
4) modesty

Correct Answer: modesty

QID : 370 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Malaise

Options:

1) despair
2) sickness
3) healthy
4) enervation

Correct Answer: healthy

QID : 371 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

A cock and bull story

Options:

1) An important story
2) An imaginary story
3) A long story
4) A short story

Correct Answer: An imaginary story

QID : 372 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Black ox

Options:

1) Nervous
2) Impossible
3) Misfortune
4) Ugly

Correct Answer: Misfortune

QID : 373 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Broke a lance with

Options:

1) To appear suddenly
2) To argue against
3) To burst out
4) To break promise

Correct Answer: To argue against

QID : 374 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Cry wolf

Options:

1) To condemn
2) To praise aloud
3) To raise a false alarm
4) Clamour

Correct Answer: To raise a false alarm

QID : 375 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Broke Reed

Options:

1) Stiffness
2) To break trust
3) Support that failed
4) To break peace

Correct Answer: Support that failed

QID : 376 - Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

The burglar (broke in) Mr. Mehta's house last night.

Options:

1) broke open
2) broke through
3) broke into
4) no improvement

Correct Answer: broke into

QID : 377 - Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

No sooner (he had returned home then) his grandparents felt happy.

Options:

1) did he return home than
2) he had returned home than
3) had he returned home when
4) no improvement

Correct Answer: did he return home than

QID : 378 - Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Ayesha purchased (the very good) of all the suits kept in the shop.

Options:

1) the most good
2) the best
3) the very better
4) no improvement

Correct Answer: the best

QID : 379 - Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

The train (left) before she reached the station.

Options:

1) would have left
2) has had left
3) had left
4) no improvement
Correct Answer: had left
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

QID : 380 - Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

My opinion (for) this film is that it will buy the Oscar award.

Options:

1) on
2) about
3) to
4) no improvement

Correct Answer: about

QID : 381 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A short journey for pleasure

Options:

1) holiday
2) stroll
3) excursion
4) sniper

Correct Answer: excursion

QID : 382 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Receiving guests warmly

Options:

1) hospitality
2) philanderer
3) docility
4) obituary

Correct Answer: hospitality

QID : 383 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Science of the constitution of the whole universe

Options:

1) ethnology
2) ornithology
3) physiology
4) cosmography

Correct Answer: cosmography

QID : 384 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Tale that brings bad reputation to somebody

Options:

1) pantheon
2) felony
3) scandal
4) portico

Correct Answer: scandal

QID : 385 - In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A man who is recovering from illness.

Options:

1) dilettante
2) emeritus
3) convalescent
4) bohemian

Correct Answer: convalescent

QID : 386 - In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

Options:

1) commission
2) commentary
3) commitee
4) competition

Correct Answer: commitee

QID : 387 - In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

Options:

1) millennium
2) millionaire
3) millenerian
4) manageable

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