SSC CGL (Tier - 2) Online Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 22 February 2018" Morning Shift (General Studies)

SSC CGL (Tier - 2) Online Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 22 February 2018"

Morning Shift (General Studies)

  
QID : 201 - If the partnership deed is silent, then what is the minimum salary or other remuneration paid to partner every month for taking part in the conduct of the business?

Options:
1) Rs 10,000
2) Rs 20,000
3) 10% of capital brought by partner
4) No salary
Correct Answer: No salary
 
QID : 202 - Which of the following needs to be excluded from current assets apart from closing stock, to get the balance as liquid assets?

Options:
1) Prepaid expenses
2) Debtors
3) Accrued Income
4) Bill receivable
Correct Answer: Prepaid expenses
 
QID : 203 - Which among the following is a capital receipts?

Options:
1) Amount received by way of loans
2) Money obtained from sale of goods
3) Dividend received on investments
4) Commission and fees received for services rendered
Correct Answer: Amount received by way of loans
 
QID : 204 - ______ is the cost of use of things or services for the purpose of generating revenue.

Options:
1) Assets
2) Profit
3) Stock
4) Expense
Correct Answer: Expense
 
QID : 205 - ______ states that accounting report must belong to a common period and use common unit of measurement and format of reporting.

Options:
1) Relevance
2) Comparability
3) Understand ability
4) Reliability
Correct Answer: Comparability
 
QID : 206 - Which of the following accounting concept eliminates personal biasedness and helps in achieving results that are comparable?

Options:
1) Accounting period
2) Dual Aspect
3) Cost
4) Consistency
Correct Answer: Consistency
 
QID : 207 - Which of the following given statements are CORRECT?

I. Increase in revenue/gain is credited.
II. Increase in capital is credited.
III. Increase in expenses is debited.
IV. Increase in liabilities is credited.

Options:
1) Only I and III
2) Only II and IV
3) Only I, III and IV
4) All are correct.
Correct Answer: All are correct.
 
QID : 208 - Returned damaged office stationary and received Rs 10,000. The account to be credited is ______.

Options:
1) office stationary
2) cash
3) purchase return
4) debtors
Correct Answer: office stationary
 
QID : 209 - Which of the following statements are FALSE?

I. Cash receipts are entered on the credit side of cash book.
II. Credit purchase of a land is entered in purchase journal.
III. Ledger is a subsidiary book.
IV. Petty cash book is a book having record of small payments.

Options:
1) Only I and II
2) Only II and III
3) Only III and IV
4) Only I and IV
Correct Answer: Only I and II
 
QID : 210 - Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:
1) Cheques deposited but not collected will result in decreasing the balance of the cash book, when compared to passbook.
2) Favorable bank balance as per the cash book will be less than the bank passbook balance when there are un presented cheque for payment.
3) The credit balance of the account of the business in the books of the bank should be unequal to the debit balance of the bank account as per the cash book.
4) Cheques issued but not presented for payment will reduce the balance as per the passbook.
Correct Answer: Favorable bank balance as per the cash book will be less than the bank passbook balance when there are un presented cheque for payment.
 
QID : 211 - What is/are the objective(s) of preparing the trial balance?

Options:
1) To ascertain the arithmetical accuracy of the ledger accounts.
2) To help in locating errors.
3) To help in the preparation of the financial statement
4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these
 
QID : 212 - Which among the following will be shown as the debit balance in a trial balance?

Options:
1) Interest paid
2) Long term loan
3) Advances from customers
4) Purchase return
Correct Answer: Interest paid

QID : 213 - If a credit purchase of machinery is recorded in purchase book instead of journal proper it is an error of ______.

Options:
1) Compensating
2) Principle
3) Omission
4) Commission
Correct Answer: Principle
 
QID : 214 - Which of the following error, will be rectified through suspense account?

Options:
1) Record of sales return by Lalit of Rs 5,000 in purchase return.
2) Omission of recording sales return by Lalit of Rs 5,000.
3) Sales return of Rs 5,000 by Lalit recorded as Rs 500.
4) Underrating of sales book by Rs 5,000.
Correct Answer: Underrating of sales book by Rs 5,000.

QID : 215 - Which of the following statement is FALSE in relation to the term depreciation?

Options:
1) It is decline in the book value of fixed assets.
2) It is a continuing process.
3) It is an unexpired cost.
4) It is a non cash expense.
Correct Answer: It is an unexpired cost.
 

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QID : 216 - ______ refers to writing off the cost of intangible assets like patents, copyrights, trademarks, franchises, and goodwill which have utility for a specified period of time.

Options:
1) Depreciation
2) Diminution
3) Depletion
4) Amortisation
Correct Answer: Amortisation
 
QID : 217 - Which of the following statement is FALSE?

Options:
1) Extraction of natural resources like mines, quarries etc. that reduces the availability of the quantity of the material or asset is termed as depletion.
2) Depreciation doesn’t provide fund for replacement.
3) Depreciation need not be charged if adequate maintenance expenditure is also incurred.
4) Depreciation is charged even if market value of an asset is higher than its book value.
Correct Answer: Depreciation doesn’t provide fund for replacement.
 
QID : 218 - Reserves and surpluses are shown on which side and under which head in the balance sheet?

Options:
1) Liability side and under capital head.
2) Asset side and under investment head
3) Liability side and under provisions.
4) Asset side and under cash in hand
Correct Answer: Liability side and under capital head.
 
QID : 219 - Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE in regard to reserve and provision?

Options:
1) A provision is a charge against profit whereas reserve is an appropriation of profit.
2) Provision reduces taxable profit whereas reserves increase taxable profit.
3) Provision cannot be used for distribution as dividend whereas reserve can be used for dividend distribution.
4) Provision is made for a known liability or expense pertaining to current accounting period where as reserve is created for strengthening the financial position of business.
Correct Answer: Provision reduces taxable profit whereas reserves increase taxable profit.
 
QID : 220 - Provision is ______ against profit.

Options:
1) disposal
2) residual
3) appropriation
4) charge
Correct Answer: charge
 
QID : 221 - What will the entery for cash sales of Rs 2500?

Options:
1) Cash A/c Dr. - Rs 2,500
To Sales A/c - Rs 2,500
 
2) Owner's A/c Dr. - Rs 2,500
To Sales A/c - Rs 2,500

3) Sales A/c Dr. - Rs 2,500
To Cash A/c - Rs 2,500
  
4) Purchases A/c Dr. - Rs 2,500
To Sales A/c - Rs 2,500
  
Correct Answer: Cash A/c Dr. - Rs 2,500
To Sales A/c - Rs 2,500
 
QID : 222 - Which account will be credited in the books of drawer when the drawer gets the bill discounted from the bank (At the time of accepting the bill)? 

Options:
1) Bill Receivable Account
2) Bank Account
3) Debtors Account
4) Discount Account
Correct Answer: Debtors Account
 
QID : 223 - When the bill is endorsed by the drawer in favour of his creditor, then which entry will be passed in the books of drawer on the maturity of the bill?

Options:
1) Creditors Account Dr. To bill Receivable Account
2) Bill Receivable Account Dr. to debtor’s Account
3) Debtor’s Account Dr. to sales Account
4) No entry
Correct Answer: No entry
 
QID : 224 - Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about capital expenditure?

Options:
1) It maintains the earning capacity of business.
2) It is recorded in balance sheet.
3) It is a non recurring expenditure.
4) It gives benefit for more than one accounting year
Correct Answer: It maintains the earning capacity of business.
 
QID : 225 - According to Partnership Act 1932, which account is debited for the transfer of net loss?

Options:
1) Profit and loss account
2) Capital account
3) Cash account
4) Owner’s account
Correct Answer: Capital account

QID : 226 - 


Options:
1) I-2, II-4, III-3, IV-1

2) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1

3) I-2, II-1, III-3, IV-4

4) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2
Correct Answer: I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2
 
QID : 227 - Which account is debited while recording an outstanding expense?

Options:
1) Concerned expense account
2) Cash account
3) Outstanding expenses account
4) Capital account
Correct Answer: Concerned expense account
 
QID : 228 - If the insurance premium paid was Rs 2,000 and pre-paid insurance already is Rs 500, then the amount of insurance premium shown in profit loss account will be:

Options:
1) Rs 2000
2) Rs 500
3) Rs 1500
4) Rs 2500
Correct Answer: Rs 1500
 
QID : 229 - Which ratios are calculated for measuring the efficiency of operation of business based on effective utilisation of resources?

Options:
1) Liquidity ratios
2) Solvency ratios
3) Activity ratios
4) Profitability ratios
Correct Answer: Activity ratios
 
QID : 230 - Which of the following ratio is also termed as leverage ratio?

Options:
1) Debt equity ratio
2) Solvency ratio
3) Proprietary ratio
4) Interest coverage ratio
Correct Answer: Debt equity ratio

QID : 231 - Proceeds from sale of patent is classified under which activity in Cash Flow Statement?

Options:
1) Investing
2) Operating
3) Financing
4) Cash
Correct Answer: Investing

QID : 232 - Among the following items given which is/are needed to be added to get net cash from operating activities while preparing Cash Flow Statement?

I. Increase in current liabilities
II. Decrease in current liabilities
III. Increase in current assets
IV. Income tax paid

Options:
1) Only I
2) Only I and III
3) Only II and IV
4) Only III
Correct Answer: Only I
 
QID : 233 - In order to compensate the investors, what kind of debentures are issued at substantial discount and the difference between the nominal value and the issue price is treated as the amount of interest related to the duration of the debentures?

Options:
1) Zero coupon rate debenture
2) Bearer debentures
3) Specific coupon rate debentures
4) Naked debentures
Correct Answer: Zero coupon rate debenture

QID : 234 - If the value of debentures is less than the value of the net asset taken over, then the difference will be credited to:

Options:
1) Goodwill account
2) Capital reserve account
3) General reserve account
4) Debenture account
Correct Answer: Capital reserve account
 
QID : 235 - The part of capital which is called-up only on winding up is called ______.

Options:
1) Reserve capital
2) General reserve
3) Capital reserve
4) Capital redemption reserve
Correct Answer: Reserve capital
 
QID : 236 - From which of the following, companies cannot buy its own shares?

Options:
1) Odd lot shareholders
2) Open market
3) Existing equity shareholders on a disproportionate basis
4) Employees of the company
Correct Answer: Existing equity shareholders on a disproportionate basis
 
QID : 237 - A and B share profit in the ratio of 5 : 2. C is admitted as a partner who sets 1/7 share. If C acquires 3/28 from A and 1/28 from B, then what will be the new profit sharing ratio?

Options:
1) 19 : 5 : 4
2) 17 : 7 : 4
3) 15 : 9 : 4
4) 16 : 8 : 4
Correct Answer: 17 : 7 : 4
 
QID : 238 - Sales revenue is a:

Options:
1) Real account
2) Nominal account
3) Personal account
4) Both Real and Nominal account
Correct Answer: Real account
 
QID : 239 - Which of the following formulae is INCORRECT?

Options:
1) Gain in share of continuing partner = New share –old share
2) Average collection period = 365/Creditors turnover ratio
3) Operating expenses = Cost of goods sold + selling expenses + Administrative expenses
4) Number of shares to be issued = Amount Payable / Issue Price
Correct Answer: Average collection period = 365/Creditors turnover ratio
 
QID : 240 - Interest Coverage Ratio and proprietary ratio comes under:

Options:
1) solvency ratio
2) activity ratio
3) profitability ratio
4) liquidity ratio
Correct Answer: solvency ratio
 
QID : 241 - Who is the current CAG of India?

Options:
1) Vinod Rai
2) V. N. Kaul
3) Shashikant Sharma
4) Rajiv Mehrishi
Correct Answer: Rajiv Mehrishi

QID : 242 - Which part of Indian constitution establishes CAG as an authority?

Options:
1) V

2) VIII

3) XV

4) XX
Correct Answer: V
 
QID : 243 - The CAG once appointed has to make an oath or affirmation before ________.

Options:
1) The Prime Minister of India
2) The President of India
3) The Supreme court Judge
4) The Finance Minister of India
Correct Answer: The President of India
 
QID : 244 - Who determines the term of office, salary and allowances, conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the Finance Commission of India from time to time?

Options:
1) The President of India
2) The Prime Minister of India
3) The Finance Minister of India
4) Governor of RBI
Correct Answer: The President of India
 
QID : 245 - What is the requirement of other members of the finance commission fixed under the Article 280 of the Constitution of India apart from the its chairman?

Options:
1) Four
2) Five
3) Six
4) Eight
Correct Answer: Four
 
QID : 246 - Which among the following is one of the three heads grouped as recommendations of the finance commission.

Options:
1) Union profits to states
2) Central Loan to states
3) Central Tax to states
4) Union Loan to states
Correct Answer: Union Loan to states
 
QID : 247 - Decrease of resources implies that production possibility curve:

Options:
1) shifts to right
2) shifts to left
3) rotates to the right
4) rotates to the left
Correct Answer: shifts to left
 
QID : 248 - Which of the following relation is INCORRECT between TU and MU?

Options:
1) TU increase as long as MU is positive.
2) TU is maximum when MU = 0.
3) TU starts declining when MU is negative.
4) Decrease in MU implies that TU increases at an increasing rate.
Correct Answer: Decrease in MU implies that TU increases at an increasing rate.
 
QID : 249 - Indifference Curve is ______ at the point of equilibrium.

Options:
1) convex
2) concave
3) straight
4) zero
Correct Answer: convex
 
QID : 250 - The two aspects: (1) Factoral distribution of Income. (2) Inter-personal distribution of Income are parts of which of the following central problem of an economy?

Options:
1) What to produce?
2) How to produce?
3) For whom to produce?
4) Why to produce?
Correct Answer: For whom to produce?
 
QID : 251 - In which type of economy social justice is accorded higher priority than profit maximization?

Options:
1) Centrally Planned Economy
2) Mixed Economy
3) Capitalist Economy
4) Private Economy
Correct Answer: Centrally Planned Economy
 
QID : 252 - A situation when demand curve shifts to the right is described under the following situation:

Options:
1) extension in demand
2) increase in demand
3) contraction in demand
4) decrease in demand
Correct Answer: increase in demand
 
QID : 253 - What is the total elasticity of demand, if a fall in own price of a commodity causes a fall in total expenditure and a rise in price causes rise in total expenditure of the commodity?

Options:
1) Less than unitary
2) Greater than unitary
3) Unitary
4) Perfectly inelastic
Correct Answer: Less than unitary
 
QID : 254 - Suppose the demand function for a commodity is given as Q= 1000 – 10P where ‘Q’ denotes quantity of demand and ‘P’ denotes price of the commodity. The Point Price elasticity of demand at price Rs 20 will be:

Options:
1) – 0.50

2) – 0.20

3) – 0.25

4) – 5
Correct Answer: – 0.25
 
QID : 255 - “Supply creates its own demand” is a ______.

Options:
1) Pareto principle
2) Martian law
3) Say’s law
4) Keynes law
Correct Answer: Say’s law
 
QID : 256 - In the case of Veblen goods, demand curve will slope:

Options:
1) Upwards
2) Downwards
3) Straight
4) Negative
Correct Answer: Upwards
 
QID : 257 - Increase in the price of a competing product will lead to:

Options:
1) contraction of supply
2) increase in supply
3) decrease in supply
4) extension of supply
Correct Answer: decrease in supply
 
QID : 258 - Es< 1, when positively sloped supply curve starts from ______.

Options:
1) x-axis
2) y-axis
3) the point of origin
4) None of these
Correct Answer: x-axis
 
QID : 259 - Price elasticity of supply of a good is 2. By what percentage should its price rise so that its supply rises by 40 percent?

Options:
1) 20

2) 10

3) 50

4) 80
Correct Answer: 20
 
QID : 260 - What will be the effect on equilibrium price if supply is increased without any change in demand?

Options:
1) Price will fall
2) Price will rise
3) No change in price
4) None of these
Correct Answer: Price will fall
 
QID : 261 - ______ refers to different possible quantities of a commodity that the consumer is ready to buy at different possible prices of that commodity.

Options:
1) desire
2) demand
3) quantity demanded
4) None of these
Correct Answer: demand
 
QID : 262 - In case of law of variable proportions, point of inflexion is where:

Options:
1) TP starts declining because MP is negative.
2) TP stops increasing at the increasing rate and starts increasing at the decreasing rate.
3) MP is decreasing and TP is increasing at the increasing rate.
4) MP is increasing and TP is increasing at the increasing rate.
Correct Answer: TP stops increasing at the increasing rate and starts increasing at the decreasing rate.
 
QID : 263 - Which among the following is/are the important component(s) of Fixed Cost?

Options:
1) Wages and salaries of permanent staff.
2) License fee and related expenses
3) Installation charges on machine and plant
4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these
 
QID : 264 - Average Fixed Cost Curve is:

Options:
1) Straight line
2) Concave to the origin
3) Rectangular Hyperbola
4) None of these
Correct Answer: Rectangular Hyperbola
 
QID : 265 - Which of the assumption is NOT TRUE in relation to isoquant curve?

Options:
1) There are only two inputs labour and capital.
2) Both inputs are indivisible.
3) Both are imperfect substitutes for each other.
4) Technology of production is constant.
Correct Answer: Both inputs are indivisible.
 
QID : 266 - Margin of safety is ______ the BEP.

Options:
1) below
2) above
3) at par with
4) negative of
Correct Answer: above
 
QID : 267 - AP is output per unit of ______ factor.

Options:
1) variable
2) total
3) fixed
4) marginal
Correct Answer: variable
 
QID : 268 - License fee comes under:

Options:
1) fixed cost
2) variable cost
3) direct cost
4) prime cost
Correct Answer: fixed cost
 
QID : 269 - Rising of AVC is due to:

Options:
1) increasing returns to a factor
2) diminishing returns to a factor
3) constant returns to a factor
4) no returns to a factor
Correct Answer: diminishing returns to a factor
 
QID : 270 - The demand curve of the firm under perfect competition is:

Options:
1) greater than one elastic
2) unitary elastic
3) perfectly elastic
4) perfectly inelastic
Correct Answer: perfectly elastic
 
QID : 271 - A monopolist charges a price which is  ______ than the marginal cost.

Options:
1) greater
2) less
3) equal
4) None of these
Correct Answer: greater
 
QID : 272 - Price control leads to rationing and black marketing under which forms of market?

Options:
1) Perfect competition
2) Oligopoly
3) Monopoly
4) Monopolistic competition
Correct Answer: Perfect competition
 
QID : 273 - Why does the firms in long run earn normal profits under perfect competition?

Options:
1) Large number of buyers of a commodity.
2) Homogenous product is sold by the firms.
3) Perfect knowledge among sellers.
4) Freedom of entry and exit of the firms.
Correct Answer: Freedom of entry and exit of the firms.
 
QID : 274 - What does a perfectly elastic demand curve of a firm reflects under perfect competition?

Options:
1) Zero price control
2) Price maker
3) Partial market control
4) Perfect immobility
Correct Answer: Zero price control
 
QID : 275 - If oligopoly firms produces differentiated products, then it is a situation of:

Options:
1) perfect oligopoly
2) imperfect oligopoly
3) pure monopoly
4) duopoly
Correct Answer: imperfect oligopoly
 
QID : 276 - In which form of market, there are only two firms producing a commodity?

Options:
1) Monopolistic competition
2) Duopoly
3) Monopoly
4) Oligopoly
Correct Answer: Duopoly
 
QID : 277 - Indian Railways can be termed as ______.

Options:
1) Natural Monopoly
2) Public Monopoly
3) Private Monopoly
4) Legal Monopoly
Correct Answer: Public Monopoly
 
QID : 278 - Gross National disposable income is equal to:

Options:
1) Net National disposable income + Current replacement cost
2) Net National disposable income – Corporate profit tax
3) Gross National disposable income – Direct personal taxes
4) Gross National disposable income – Miscellaneous fees and fines paid by the households
Correct Answer: Net National disposable income + Current replacement cost

QID : 279 - 


Options:
1) I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2

2) I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1

3) I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1

4) I-3, II-1, III-2, IV-4
Correct Answer: I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1
 
QID : 280 - The process of moving from self-employment and regular salaried employment to casual wage work is known as ______.

Options:
1) casualisation of workforce
2) degeneration of workforce
3) normalisation of workforce
4) retrieving of workforce
Correct Answer: casualisation of workforce
 
QID : 281 - GDP deflator equals:

Options:
1) [(GDP at current prices)/(GDP at constant prices)] × 100
2) [(GDP at constant prices)/(GDP at current prices)] × 100
3) [(GDP at real prices)/(GDP at constant prices)] × 100
4) None of these
Correct Answer: [(GDP at current prices)/(GDP at constant prices)] × 100
 
QID : 282 - Which industry is also known as basic industry?

Options:
1) Chemical Industry
2) Agro based Industry
3) Forest based Industry
4) Iron and Steel Industry
Correct Answer: Iron and Steel Industry
 
QID : 283 - In terms of economic system, what is disinvetment?

Options:
1) Privatisation of the public sector enterprises
2) Increasing the value of share of a company
3) Decreasing the value of share of a company
4) Foreign investments in defence sector
Correct Answer: Privatisation of the public sector enterprises
 
QID : 284 - When the number of poor is estimated as the proportion of people below the poverty line, it is known as ______.

Options:
1) Earning Member Ratio
2) Head Count Ratio
3) Foot Count Ratio
4) Poor People Ratio
Correct Answer: Head Count Ratio
 
QID : 285 - What is Fiscal deficit?

Options:
1) It occurs when a government's total revenue exceeds the total expenditure excluding borrowings.
2) It is the difference between governments total receipts and its total expenditure including borrowings.
3) It occurs when a government's total expenditure exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings. 
4) No option is correct.
Correct Answer: It occurs when a government's total expenditure exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings. 
 
QID : 286 - Which among the following is NOT an example of Heavy industry?

Options:
1) Metal melting
2) Chemical manufacture
3) Textile production
4) Pottery and brick making from clay
Correct Answer: Pottery and brick making from clay
 
QID : 287 - Which among the following is the oldest economic activity known?

Options:
1) Mining
2) Cotton weaving
3) Agriculture
4) All of these
Correct Answer: Agriculture
 
QID : 288 - Which of the following industry is NOT reserved for the public sector after New Economic Policy of 1991?

Options:
1) Defence equipments
2) Railway transport
3) Aerospace
4) Atomic energy generation
Correct Answer: Aerospace
 
QID : 289 - The trade policy reforms aimed at:

Options:
1) dismantling of quantitative restrictions on imports and exports.
2) reduction of tariff rates.
3) removal of licensing procedures for imports.
4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these
 
QID : 290 - Under which Amendment Act of Indian Constitution GST is introduced?

Options:
1) 100

2) 101

3) 102

4) 105
Correct Answer: 101
 
QID : 291 - Who is the chairman of GST Council?

Options:
1) Arun Jaitely
2) Pranab Mukherjee
3) Narendra Modi
4) Ram Nath Kovind
Correct Answer: Arun Jaitely
 
QID : 292 - What is the allocation on defence budget in the Union Budget of India (2018-19)?

Options:
1) Rs 4.52 lakh crores
2) Rs 2.95 lakh crores
3) Rs 3.68 lakh crores
4) Rs 5.72 lakh crores
Correct Answer: Rs 2.95 lakh crores

QID : 293 - What is that money which is accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust between the payer and the payee?

Options:
1) Fiat money
2) Fiduciary money
3) Credit money
4) Full bodied money
Correct Answer: Fiduciary money
 
QID : 294 - Currency deposit ratio equals:

Options:
1) Cash in hand with the people
2) Demand deposit with the people
3) Both (A) and (B)
4) None of these
Correct Answer: Both (A) and (B)
 
QID : 295 - Credit multiplier is equal to:

Options:
1) 1/CRR
2) 1/SLR
3) 1/Repo Rate
4) 1/Reverse Repo Rate
Correct Answer: 1/CRR
 
QID : 296 - In 1991, as an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis, the rupee was ______ against foreign currencies.

Options:
1) revalued
2) devalued
3) freezed
4) freed
Correct Answer: devalued
 
QID : 297 - 


Options:
1) I-1, II-3, III-2

2) I-2, II-1, III-3

3) I-3, II-1, III-2

4) I-3, II-2, III-1
Correct Answer: I-3, II-1, III-2
 
QID : 298 - Prime Minister of India has launched an online platform mygov.nic.in to engage citizens in the task of _____.

Options:
1) Sampoorn
2) Sunehra
3) Suraksha
4) Surajya
Correct Answer: Surajya
 
QID : 299 - Which organization has launched the BHIM mobile application?

Options:
1) NPCI
2) NITI Ayog
3) NSDL
4) NIC
Correct Answer: NPCI
 
QID : 300 - Who will be appointed as the president of NASSCOM, upon the completion of R. Chandrashekhar's term in March, 2018? 

Options:
1) Debjani Ghosh
2) R. Chandrashekhar
3) Kiran Karnik
4) Som Mittal
Correct Answer: Debjani Ghosh

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