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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 23 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift (General Awareness)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 23 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift
(General Awareness)

QID : 851 - Depreciation of fixed assets is an example of __________.

1) deferred revenue expenditure
2) capital expenditure
3) capital gain
4) revenue expenditure

Correct Answer: capital expenditure

QID : 852 - Which one of the following is not a feature of monopolistic competition?

1) Large number of buyers and sellers in the market
2) Differentiated products constitute the market
3) Product in the market is homogeneous
4) Selling costs are used for sale promotion

Correct Answer: Product in the market is homogeneous

QID : 853 - What is the maximum loan amount permissible under the MUDRA Yojana?

1) Rs. 50,000
2) Rs. 1 lakh
3) Rs. 5 lakh
4) Rs. 10 lakh

Correct Answer: Rs. 10 lakh

QID : 854 - As per a latest classification of countries by the World Bank India now belongs to which of the following category?

1) Upper-lower income country
2) Lower-middle income country
3) Middle-middle income country
4) Lower-upper income country

Correct Answer: Lower-middle income country

QID : 855 - As per census 2011, which state had the lowest sex ratio?

1) Punjab
2) Haryana
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Bihar

Correct Answer: Haryana

QID : 856 - Pluralist Theory of Sovereignty emphasizes the importance of which of the followings?

1) Association
2) Monarch
3) State
4) Government

Correct Answer: Association

QID : 857 - In which of the following countries the system of judicial review was originated?

1) France
2) Germany
3) USA
4) Britain

Correct Answer: USA

QID : 858 - Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the District Planning Commission constituted?

1) Article 243 ZD
2) Article 244 ZD
3) Article 242 ZD
4) Article 243 ZE

Correct Answer: Article 243 ZD

QID : 859 - Which kind of majority is required for constitutional amendment in forming a new state?

1) Simple
2) Two-third
3) Three-fourth
4) Two-third plus ratification by half of all states

Correct Answer: Simple

QID : 860 - Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member?

1) Vice-President
2) Attorney General of India
3) Comptroller and Auditor General
4) Election Commission

Correct Answer: Attorney General of India

QID : 861 - The term 'Stupa' is associated with which of the following event of Gautam Buddha’s life?

1) Death
2) First Sermon
3) Birth
4) Renunciation

Correct Answer: Death

QID : 862 - Who was the last ruler of the Gupta Dynasty?

1) Puru Gupta
2) Vishnu Gupta
3) Skanda Gupta
4) Kumar Gupta

Correct Answer: Vishnu Gupta

QID : 863 - Where was Guru Govind Singh educated and learnt Persian?

1) Lahore
2) Amritsar
3) Patna
4) Anandpur Sahib

Correct Answer: Anandpur Sahib

QID : 864 - Which of the following was the precursor of Indian National Congress?

1) Servents of Indian Society
2) Indian Association
3) Indian National Union
4) Indian League

Correct Answer: Indian Association

QID : 865 - During which governor general's time was the annexation of Sindh in British State done?

1) Lord Dalhousie
2) Lord Chelmsford
3) Lord Ellenborough
4) Lord Hastings

Correct Answer: Lord Ellenborough

QID : 866 - What is the second most abundant element on Earth's crust?

1) Carbon
2) Silicon
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen

Correct Answer: Silicon

QID : 867 - What is called a shallow stretch of river that may be crossed on feet.?

1) Ford
2) Atoll
3) Reef
4) Lagoon

Correct Answer: Ford

QID : 868 - Which among the following is a cold-dry wind?

1) Hurricane
2) Tornado
3) Bora
4) Cyclone

Correct Answer: Bora

QID : 869 - The man-made reservoir Gobind Sagar located in Bilaspur is situated in which of the following states?

1) Uttarakhand
2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Punjab
4) Himachal Pradesh

Correct Answer: Himachal Pradesh

QID : 870 - Which among the following rivers does not flow from East to West?

1) Narmada
2) Tapti
3) Cauvery
4) Mahi

Correct Answer: Cauvery

QID : 871 - Which of the following historical monument has been chosen as a "Swachh Bharat Icon" by the Union Government on November 21, 2017.

1) Haveli Dharampur
2) Charminar
3) Amaravati
4) Vishwa Bharati

Correct Answer: Charminar

QID : 872 - As per a recent announcement, where will India's first Electronic Manufacturing Cluster (EMC) come up?

1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Maharashtra
3) Rajasthan
4) West Bengal

Correct Answer: Andhra Pradesh

QID : 873 - Which of the following is a multilevel global campaign to spread awareness about importance of girl’s education?

1) Girl Rising
2) Most Important Part of Our Life: Girls
3) Save Girls: Educate Girls
4) Education of Girls

Correct Answer: Girl Rising

QID : 874 - Which country will host the Summer Olympics 2020?

1) Qatar
2) Tokyo
3) Rome
4) Jakarta

Correct Answer: Tokyo

QID : 875 - Which of the following sportsperson is not correctly matched with their respective discipline?

1) Jitu Rai : Shooting
2) P.V. Sindhu : Badminton
3) Sakshi Malik : Boxing
4) Deepa Karmakar : Gymnastic

Correct Answer: Sakshi Malik : Boxing

Study Kit for SSC Junior Engineer EXAM (Paper-1)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 23 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift (General Intelligence & Reasoning)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 23 Jan 2018" Afternoon Shift
(General Intelligence & Reasoning)

QID : 801 - In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Heart : Organ : : ? : ?

1) Bus : Vehicle
2) Car : Road
3) Ship : Sea
4) Train : Rail

Correct Answer: Bus : Vehicle

QID : 802 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Big : Small : : Solid : ?

1) Metal
2) Liquid
3) Smoke
4) Cold

Correct Answer: Liquid

QID : 803 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Calculator : Calculations : : Scale : ?

1) Inches
2) Centimeters
3) Measure
4) Steel

Correct Answer: Measure

QID : 804 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

MUFT : PXIW : : GONE : ?

1) HMRL
2) JSPA
3) JRQH
4) HQRF

Correct Answer: JRQH

QID : 805 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

PINK : TMRO : : SOLD : ?

1) HQTX
2) WSPH
3) HAQV
4) AQBH

Correct Answer: WSPH

QID : 806 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

SW : VA : : LT : ?

1) NY
2) LA
3) OX
4) OL

Correct Answer: OX

QID : 807 - In the following question, select the related number pair from the given alternatives.

19 : 363 : : ? : ?

1) 16 : 259
2) 13 : 171
3) 14 : 199
4) 14 : 195

Correct Answer: 13 : 171

QID : 808 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

42 : 105 : : 38 : ?

1) 111
2) 135
3) 95
4) 83

Correct Answer: 95

QID : 809 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

24 : 39 : : 49 : ?

1) 68
2) 64
3) 69
4) 79

Correct Answer: 64

QID : 810 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

1) Liver
2) Intestine
3) Organ
4) Lungs

Correct Answer: Organ

QID : 811 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

1) Black
2) Yellow
3) Rainbow
4) Pink

Correct Answer: Rainbow

QID : 812 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

1) Arteries
2) Veins
3) Hand
4) Bones

Correct Answer: Hand

QID : 813 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

1) RLF
2) MGA
3) EYR
4) HBV

Correct Answer: EYR

QID : 814 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

1) IR
2) KP
3) GT
4) OV

Correct Answer: OV

QID : 815 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

1) XTQMJ
2) FBYUR
3) GCZVS
4) TPMIE

Correct Answer: TPMIE

QID : 816 - In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

1) 4 – 21
2) 7 – 54
3) 6 – 41
4) 3 – 16

Correct Answer: 3 – 16

QID : 817 - In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

1) 11 – 17
2) 23 – 31
3) 43 – 59
4) 41 – 47

Correct Answer: 43 – 59

QID : 818 - In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

1) 12 – 156
2) 13 – 182
3) 14 – 210
4) 15 – 230

Correct Answer: 15 – 230

QID : 819 - Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Shocking
2. Shiver
3. Shelter
4. Shorten
5. Shudder

1) 23145
2) 32145
3) 14523
4) 41523

Correct Answer: 32145

QID : 820 - According to dictionary, which of the following word will come at LAST position?

1. Operation
2. Orderly
3. Openly
4. Opulent
5. Oral

1) Oral
2) Orderly
3) Opulent
4) Operation

Correct Answer: Orderly

QID : 821 - From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at THIRD position?

1) Passage
2) Pastime
3) Patience
4) Pathetic

Correct Answer: Pathetic

QID : 822 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AGM, FLR, KQW, PVB, ?

1) UAG
2) VLC
3) CGN
4) PNO

Correct Answer: UAG

QID : 823 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

FROM, CNLI, ZJIE, WFFA, ?

1) ACNG
2) TCCX
3) TBCW
4) FRIP

Correct Answer: TBCW

QID : 824 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

TRO, PNK, LJG, ?, DBY

1) FBC
2) FNB
3) FRN
4) HFC

Correct Answer: HFC

QID : 825 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

11, 16, 21, 13, 19, 25, 15, 22, 29, ?, 25

1) 18
2) 17
3) 19
4) 21

Correct Answer: 17

QID : 826 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

2112, 2328, 2671, 3183, ?, 4912

1) 3826
2) 3742
3) 3912
4) 3992

Correct Answer: 3912

QID : 827 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

21, 22, 34.5, 71, 180, 543, ?

1) 1864
2) 2234
3) 2336
4) 1904

Correct Answer: 1904

QID : 828 - M is 2 years older than P. L is 2 years older than O. O's age is the average of the ages of L and N, P's age is the average of the ages of L and M and L's age is the average of P and O. Who is the youngest?

1) L
2) M
3) N
4) O

Correct Answer: N

QID : 829 - X said to Y that your mother's father-in-law's wife is mother-in-law of my father. How are X and Y related?

1) X is sister's husband of Y
2) X is child of Y's father's sister
3) Y is father's brother of X
4) Y is sister's husband of X

Correct Answer: X is child of Y's father's sister

QID : 830 - From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

GEOGRAPHIC

1) cheap
2) rogue
3) price
4) graph

Correct Answer: rogue

QID : 831 - If BANQUET is coded as ZYLOSCR, then how will NEW be coded as?

1) MVD
2) MDV
3) LCU
4) OFX

Correct Answer: LCU

QID : 832 - In a certain code language, 9124 means 'run around the block', 2548 means 'don’t block the path' and 4763 means 'chock a block full'. Find the code for 'the'.

1) 1
2) 9
3) 2
4) 4

Correct Answer: 2

QID : 833 - In a certain code language, '+' represents '-', '-' represents 'x', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '+'. Find out the answer to the following question.

90 x 10 ÷ 25 - 5 + 50 = ?

1) 81
2) 84
3) 100
4) 48

Correct Answer: 84

QID : 834 - If 11 @ 7 = 2, 18 @ 0 = 9 and 22 @ 20 = 1, then find the value of 16 @ 10 = ?

1) 6
2) 160
3) 26
4) 3

Correct Answer: 3

QID : 835 - If A * B means A is father of B, A + B means A is sister of B and If A % B means A is daughter of B, then what does C * D % E + F mean?

1) C is F's husband
2) C is F's wife's brother
3) C is father of F
4) C is F's sister's husband

Correct Answer: C is F's sister's husband

QID : 836 -

1) 1
2) 9
3) -1
4) -9

Correct Answer: 9

QID : 837 - Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

CABABABAB, ACBABABAB, ABCABABAB, ABACBABAB, ABABCABAB, ______________.

1) ABABABACB
2) ABABABCAB
3) ABABACBAB
4) ABABABABC

Correct Answer: ABABACBAB

QID : 838 - A ship starts from the port and sails 43 miles East, then it turns South and sails 17 miles, then it turns West and sails 25 miles, then it turns to its right and sails 17 miles. Where is it with respect to the port from where it started?

1) 18 miles West
2) 68 miles East
3) 18 miles East
4) 68 miles West

Correct Answer: 18 miles East

QID : 839 - Two planes start from the same strip. Plane P flies 15 miles West, then turns left flies 22 miles and lands. In the meanwhile plane Q flies 7 miles South, then flies 11 miles East, then turns to its right, flies 15 miles and lands. Where is plane Q with respect to plane P?

1) 26 miles East
2) 26 miles West
3) 4 miles East
4) 4 miles West

Correct Answer: 26 miles East

QID : 840 - In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: All officers are mothers
Statement II: Some doctors are mothers

Conclusion I: All doctors are mothers
Conclusion II: Some mothers are officers

1) Only conclusion I follows
2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Both conclusions I and II follow
4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: Only conclusion II follows

QID : 841 - In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: All desert is jungle
Statement II: All sand is desert
Statement III: No trees are jungle

Conclusion I: No trees are desert
Conclusion II: No sand is trees
Conclusion III: All jungle is sand

1) Only conclusion I follows
2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Only conclusions I and II follow
4) None of the conclusions follow

Correct Answer: Only conclusions I and II follow

QID : 842 -

1)


2)


3)


4)

Correct Answer:

Study Kit for SSC Junior Engineer EXAM (Paper-1)

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General: 

Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 23-JAN-2018" Morning Shift-General Engineering (Civil, Electrical, Mechanical)

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Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 23-JAN-2018" Morning Shift-General Engineering (Civil, Electrical, Mechanical)

QID : 101 - Which one of the following brick is suitable for the high-class brick masonry?=

1) Bull nose bricks
2) Jhumb bricks
3) Modular bricks
4) Under burnt bricks

Correct Answer: Modular bricks

QID : 102 - Which of the following is the correct reason for soaking the brick in water before its use?

1) For preventing adsorption of moisture from mortar by bricks
2) For reducing air void
3) For reducing efflorescence
4) For cleaning

Correct Answer: For preventing adsorption of moisture from mortar by bricks

QID : 103 - Which of the following compound affects the ultimate strength of cement?

1) Dicalcium silicate
2) Tetracalcium alumino-ferrite
3) Tricalcium aluminate
4) Tricalcium silicate

Correct Answer: Dicalcium silicate

QID : 104 - Refractory bricks are generally used to resist _____.

1) chemical action
2) dampness
3) high temperature
4) weathering action

Correct Answer: high temperature

QID : 105 - Which of the following is the correct percentage of maximum moisture content based in sand where change in volume is maximum?

1) 5%
2) 9%
3) 12%
4) 15%

Correct Answer: 5%

QID : 106 - Which one of the following cement is best for the marine works?

1) Blast furnace slag cement
2) High alumina cement
3) Low heat Portland cement
4) Rapid hardening cement

Correct Answer: Blast furnace slag cement

QID : 107 - Which of the following is limit of the moisture content that can be achieved in the air drying process of timber?

1) 10%
2) 15%
3) 20%
4) 28%

Correct Answer: 15%

QID : 108 - Which of the following proportion of cement and standard sand is used in cement mortar while testing the compressive and tensile strength of cement?

1) 1:2
2) 1:3
3) 1:4
4) 1:6

Correct Answer: 1:3

QID : 109 - Which of the following is the important factor that affects the shrinkage of cement concrete?

1) Quantity of cement
2) Size of coarse aggregates
3) Size of the fine aggregate
4) Amount of water added during mixing of concrete

Correct Answer: Amount of water added during mixing of concrete

QID : 110 - Calculate the proportion (in percentage) of fine aggregate in combined aggregate so that the fineness modulus of the combined aggregate becomes 6.4. The fineness modulus of coarse aggregate and fine aggregate in the concrete mix is 7.6 and 2.8 respectively.

1) 20
2) 33.33
3) 35
4) 66.6

Correct Answer: 33.33

QID : 111 - Which of the following unit is used for estimation of D.P.C. work?

1) Number
2) Cubic meter
3) Running meter
4) Square meter

Correct Answer: Square meter

QID : 112 - Calculate the quantity of the sand required (in cubic meter) in 20 cubic meters of reinforced cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4).

1) 2.87
2) 4.4
3) 5.7
4) 8.8

Correct Answer: 8.8

QID : 113 - Deduction at cross wall for total length of the central line is _____.

1) half of thickness of wall.
2) no deduction.
3) thickness of wall
4) twice of the thickness of wall

Correct Answer: thickness of wall

QID : 114 - Calculate the quantity of the earth works in cubic meter for a canal embankment of 100 m long having cross section areas at the two sections are 20 square meters and 80 square meters. Use trapezoidal method.

1) 2000
2) 5000
3) 7000
4) 10000

Correct Answer: 5000

QID : 115 - Accuracy in measurement of the area should be _____.

1) 1 square centimeter
2) 10 square centimeter
3) 100 square centimeter
4) 1 square meter

Correct Answer: 100 square centimeter

QID : 116 - For estimation of painted area of corrugated asbestos cement sheets, percentage increase in area above the painted area is _____.

1) 10%
2) 14%
3) 20%
4) 25%

Correct Answer: 20%

QID : 117 - Which of the following is the purpose of the valuation?

1) Approximate estimation of cost
2) Analysis of rate
3) Detailed estimation of cost
4) Taxation

Correct Answer: Taxation

QID : 118 - An electric generator is installed in the building at a cost of Rs. 50,000. Calculate the annual sinking fund (Rs.) required to be deposited to accumulate the whole amount of 5% compound interest. Assume the life of the electric generator as 10 years.

1) 1535
2) 30695
3) 3975
4) 79503

Correct Answer: 3975

QID : 119 - No deduction is made for opening in estimation of masonry work up to__________

1) 1 square centimeter
2) 10 square centimeter
3) 100 square centimeter
4) 1000 square centimeter

Correct Answer: 1000 square centimeter

QID : 120 - Calculate the weight (kg) per meter length of 25 mm diameter steel bar place at a spacing of 250 mm center by center for 1 meter.

1) 0.96
2) 3.85
3) 7.7
4) 15.43

Correct Answer: 15.43

QID : 121 - Which one is the upper limit of survey area (square kilometer) for use of plane survey?

1) 250
2) 300
3) 350
4) 450

Correct Answer: 250

QID : 122 - Which one is the smallest scale?

1) 1 : 100
2) 1 : 500
3) 1 : 1,000
4) 1 : 2,500

Correct Answer: 1 : 2,500

QID : 123 - A line of true length 398 m when measured by a chain of 20 m chain is recorded to be 400 m. What is the actual length of the chain (in m)?

1) 19.9
2) 20.1
3) 20.4
4) 21.5

Correct Answer: 19.9

QID : 124 - Calculate the correction for temperature for a tape of length ‘L’, if the increase in temperature is ‘T’ above the standard temperature. The coefficient of the temperature for tape material is ‘a’.

1) aT/ L
2) - aT/ L
3) + aTL
4) - aTL

Correct Answer: + aTL

QID : 125 - What is the correct sequence of the temporary adjustment of level?

1) Centering, leveling and setting
2) Leveling, setting and centering
3) Setting, centering and leveling
4) Setting, leveling and centering

Correct Answer: Setting, centering and leveling

QID : 126 - The values of whole circle bearing vary from _____.

1) 00 to 900
2) 00 to 1800
3) 00 to 2700
4) 00 to 3600

Correct Answer:  00 to 3600

QID : 127 - Which of the following statement is correct for proper adjustment of the theodolite?

1) Axis of plate level is perpendicular to the horizontal axis
2) Line of collimation is perpendicular to the horizontal axis
3) Line of collimation is parallel to the vertical axis
4) Line of collimation is perpendicular to the vertical axis

Correct Answer: Line of collimation is perpendicular to the horizontal axis

QID : 128 - Which of the followings are correct for sensitivity of the bubble tube?

1) Sensitivity decreases with increase in internal radius of the tube
2) Sensitivity decreases with increase in diameter of the tube.
3) Sensitivity increases with decrease in length of the tube.
4) Sensitivity increases with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.

Correct Answer: Sensitivity increases with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.

QID : 129 - Calculate the curvature correction (in m) if distance between the instrument and staff is 500 m.

1) 0.0196
2) – 0.0196
3) 0.0028
4) – 0.0028

Correct Answer: – 0.0196

QID : 130 - Calculate the volume of the earthwork (in cubic meter) using trapezoidal method if the cross section areas of the three section of embankment at an interval of 20 m are 40 square meters, 50 square meters and 80 square meters.

1) 1067
2) 1700
3) 2200
4) 3200

Correct Answer: 2200

QID : 131 - The_________ soil transported by the gravitational forces.

1) alluvial soil
2) colluvial soil
3) loess
4) till

Correct Answer: colluvial soil

QID : 132 - Which of the following is determined with the help of pycnometer?

1) Dry density and specific gravity
2) Void ratio and dry density
3) Water content and specific gravity
4) Water content and void ratio

Correct Answer: Water content and specific gravity

QID : 133 - The cell pressure and pore water pressure is increased from 0.1 N/sq. m to 0.26 N/sq. m and 0.07 N/sq. m to 0.15 N/sq. m respectively in the triaxial test. The Skempton’s pore pressure parameter is given by_____.

1) -3
2) -0.5
3) 0.5
4) 2

Correct Answer: 0.5

QID : 134 - Which one of the following shows time factor (approximate), for 50% degree of consolidation?

1) 0.2
2) 0.5
3) 1
4) 2

Correct Answer: 0.2

QID : 135 - Which one of the following is true about ideal fluid?

1) It is compressible.
2) It is incompressible.
3) It has high shear force.
4) It has high value of viscosity.

Correct Answer: It is incompressible.

QID : 136 - The diameter of droplet is 0.075 mm. What is the intensity of the pressure (N/sq. cm) developed in the droplet by surface tension of 0.000075 N/mm?

1) 0.4
2) 0.6
3) 0.8
4) 1

Correct Answer: 0.4

QID : 137 - A rectangular block of dimensions 2 m x 1 m x 1 m is floating in the water with immersing depth of 0.5 m. What is the weight of block (kN) if unit weight of water is 10 kN/cubic meter.

1) 5
2) 10
3) 15
4) 20

Correct Answer: 10

QID : 138 - On which principle equation of continuity is based?

1) Conservation of energy
2) Conservation of mass
3) Conservation of momentum
4) All option are correct

Correct Answer: Conservation of mass

QID : 139 - If Reynolds numbers are 1000,000, then what is the approximate value of friction for the smooth pipe?

1) 0.1
2) 0.01
3) 0.001
4) 0.0001

Correct Answer: 0.01

QID : 140 - Which one of the following is correct for impulse turbine?

1) Always operates in submerged condition
2) Converts pressure head into velocity with the help of vanes
3) Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy
4) Operates by initial complete conversion to potential energy

Correct Answer: Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy

QID : 141 - When the water drawn from the central hole made in wash hand basin, the type of flow of water is _____.

1) forced vortex
2) free vortex
3) tangential flow
4) transitional flow

Correct Answer: free vortex

QID : 142 - Which of the following turbine is suitable to generate the power of 10,000 hp, working at the speed of 500 rpm under a head of 81 m?

1) Propeller
2) Francis
3) Kaplan
4) Pelton

Correct Answer: Francis

QID : 143 - Calculate the specific energy (m-kg/kg) of the flow if the velocity of flow is 2.22 m/s and depth of flow is 1 m.

1) 1.25
2) 2.22
3) 3.22
4) 4.22

QID : 144 - The sphere of diameter 0.02 m is falls in the fluid of kinematic viscosity 10 stokes with the terminal velocity of 0.02 m/s. What is the value of coefficient of drag on the falling sphere?

1) 40
2) 60
3) 80
4) 100

Correct Answer: 60

QID : 145 - As one moves from head of the canal to the field, the duty of the water _____.

1) decreases
2) either increases or decreases
3) increases
4) remains constant

Correct Answer: increases

QID : 146 - Which of the following is the correct assumption of the Kennedy’s theory?

1) Shape of regime channel is semicircular.
2) Silt is in suspension due to buoyancy force.
3) Silt is in suspension due to eddy formed from bottom of channel.
4) Silt is in suspension due to eddy formed from wetted perimeter of channel.

Correct Answer: Silt is in suspension due to eddy formed from bottom of channel.

QID : 147 - What is the value of the lateral coefficient of the friction as per the IRC?

1) 0.007
2) 0.01
3) 0.15
4) 0.3

Correct Answer: 0.15

QID : 148 - Calculate the safe stopping sight distance (in m) for the descending gradient of 3% for a design speed of 80 km/h. Take coefficient of friction as 0.35 and total reaction time as 2 seconds.

1) 110.82
2) 123.26
3) 1018.41
4) 1092

Correct Answer: 123.26

QID : 149 - Which of the following is the minimum limit (ppm) of the dissolved oxygen that must be in the water for survival of aquatic life?

1) 1
2) 4
3) 10
4) 40

Correct Answer: 4

QID : 150 - A stream has flow of 20 cumecs and BOD concentration of 10 mg/l receives the industrial waste water having flow of 1.5 cumecs and BOD concentration of 250 mg/l. What is the BOD concentration (mg/l) of stream at downstream point of meeting of stream with industrial waste?

1) 2.67
2) 12.09
3) 13
4) 26.74

Correct Answer: 26.74

Study Kit for SSC Junior Engineer EXAM (Paper-1)

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Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 23-JAN-2018" Morning Shift (General Awareness)

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Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 23-JAN-2018" Morning Shift (General Awareness)

QID : 1 - By what name is the BRICS bank presently known?

1) BRICS Development Bank
2) Afro-Asia Development Bank
3) New Development Bank
4) No option is correct.

Correct Answer: New Development Bank

QID : 2 - What does parallel economy mean?

1) Black Money
2) Parallel Business
3) Illegal Economy
4) No option is correct.

Correct Answer: Black Money

QID : 3 - Who implements monetary policy in India?

1) NITI Aayog
2) RBI
3) Ministry of Finance
4) Parliament

Correct Answer: RBI

QID : 4 - The ARDC is a branch of the NABARD. What is the full form of ARDC?

1) Agricultural Research and Development Corporation
2) Agriculture and River Development Cooperation
3) Agricultural Reform and Development Cooperation
4) Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation

Correct Answer: Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation

QID : 5 - Which of the following is a part of machinery that settles industrial disputes?

1) Labour Court
2) Industrial Tribunal
3) Work Committee
4) All options are correct.

Correct Answer: All options are correct.

QID : 6 - In which year Nagaland was created as separate state?

1) 1961
2) 1962
3) 1963
4) 1964

Correct Answer: 1963

QID : 7 - Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget?

1) Department of Economic Affairs
2) Department of Revenue
3) Department of Expenditure
4) No option is correct.

Correct Answer: Department of Economic Affairs

QID : 8 - Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?

1) Dr Rajendra Prasad
2) Dr Sachchidanand Sinha
3) B R Ambedkar
4) Sardar Patel

Correct Answer: Dr Sachchidanand Sinha

QID : 9 - Which of the following was not adopted from the Maurya Dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?

1) Satyameva Jayate
2) Bull
3) Horse
4) Four Lions

Correct Answer: Satyameva Jayate

QID : 10 - The first session of Constituent Assembly of India was held in which of the following cities?

1) Bombay
2) Madras
3) Culcutta
4) Delhi

Correct Answer: Delhi

QID : 11 - Which of the following is the best example of Vijaynagar Art?

1) Ajanta
2) Hampi
3) Puri
4) Sanchi

Correct Answer: Hampi

QID : 12 - Taxila was capital of which among the 16 Mahajanpadas?

1) Kosala
2) Kuru
3) Vajji
4) Gandhara

Correct Answer: Gandhara

QID : 13 - Who was founder of Mughal Empire in India?

1) Babur
2) Humayun
3) Akbar
4) Jahangir

Correct Answer: Babur

QID : 14 - Where did Vasco da Gama arrive in India in 1498?

1) Madras
2) Calcutta
3) Calicut
4) Bombay

Correct Answer: Calicut

QID : 15 - According to the treaty of Srirangapattanam, which of the following was ceded to the British?

1) Mysore
2) Hampi
3) Kannur
4) Malabar

Correct Answer: Malabar

QID : 16 - By what name is the Ganga known in Bangladesh?

1) Padma
2) Ganga
3) Damodar
4) Meghna

Correct Answer: Padma

QID : 17 - Which of the following are not kharif crops?

1) Maize and Rice
2) Arhar and Soyabean
3) Wheat and Barley
4) Ragi and Groundnut

Correct Answer: Wheat and Barley

QID : 18 - How many seismic stations are required to locate the epicentre of an earthquake?

1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6

Correct Answer: 3

QID : 19 - Madhya Pradesh shares its border with how many States?

1) 5
2) 4
3) 6
4) 3

Correct Answer: 5

QID : 20 - Palghat joins which of the following states?

1) Goa and Maharashtra
2) Kerala and Karnataka
3) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
4) Mizoram and Manipur

Correct Answer: Tamil Nadu and Kerala

QID : 21 - Which of the following authorities regulates NPS?

1) IRDA
2) PFRDA
3) CAG
4) SEBI

Correct Answer: PFRDA

QID : 22 - Which of the following is a centrally sponsored scheme to empower adolescent girls?

1) SAKSHAM
2) ABLA
3) SABLA
4) BBBPS

Correct Answer: SABLA

QID : 23 - Which among the following has inscribed Kumbh Mela on the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?

1) WHO
2) UNCTAD
3) ADB
4) UNESCO

Correct Answer: UNESCO

QID : 24 - Who has been appointed as the General Manager of Board of Control for Cricket in India?

1) MV Sridhar
2) Saba Karim
3) Rahul Johri
4) Anurag Thakur

Correct Answer: Saba Karim

QID : 25 - FIFA World Cup 2022 will be held in which country?

1) Russia
2) Spain
3) Ukrain
4) Qatar

Correct Answer: Qatar

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 23-JAN-2018" Morning Shift (General Intelligence & Reasoning)

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(Papers) SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper - 2017 "held on 23-JAN-2018" Morning Shift (General Intelligence & Reasoning)

QID : 1 - In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

1) Sun : Heat
2) Earth : Planet
3) Land : Solid
4) Water : Drink

Correct Answer: Earth : Planet

QID : 2 - In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Square : Four : : ? : ?

1) Rectangle : Five
2) Hexagon : Seven
3) Rhombus : Six
4) Triangle : Three

Correct Answer: Triangle : Three

QID : 3 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Forest : Trees : : Book : ?

1) Pages
2) Bind
3) Writer
4) Pen

Correct Answer: Pages

QID : 4 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

TRAP : YWFU : : FROG : ?

1) KHLG
2) KWTL
3) WKLH
4) FGHL

Correct Answer: KWTL

QID : 5 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

FAN : MZU : : LIP : ?

1) FGA
2) KRO
3) ANP
4) TSQ

Correct Answer: KRO

QID : 6 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AM : FR : : LQ : ?

1) HQ
2) NP
3) QV
4) LS

Correct Answer: QV

QID : 7 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

46 : 24 : : 54 : ?

1) 30
2) 24
3) 20
4) 36

Correct Answer: 20

QID : 8 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

11 : 24 : : 23 : ?

1) 42
2) 36
3) 54
4) 58

Correct Answer: 36

QID : 9 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

5 : 15 : : 7 : ?

1) 28
2) 21
3) 37
4) 25

Correct Answer: 21

QID : 10 - In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

1) Pen – Write
2) Ball – Play
3) Food - Eat
4) Pencil - Stationery

Correct Answer: Pencil - Stationery

QID : 11 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

1) Road
2) Truck
3) Car
4) Scooter

Correct Answer: Road

QID : 12 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

1) Rice
2) Wheat
3) Maize
4) Crop

Correct Answer: Crop

QID : 13 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

1) GJM
2) HKN
3) MPS
4) NQU

Correct Answer: NQU

QID : 14 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

1) LQVA
2) AFKQ
3) CHMR
4) MRWB

Correct Answer: AFKQ

QID : 15 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

1) VRNJ
2) CYUQ
3) KGCX
4) SOKG

Correct Answer: KGCX

QID : 16 - In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

1) 2 – 12
2) 5 – 28
3) 4 – 24
4) 3 – 18

Correct Answer: 5 – 28

QID : 17 - In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

1) 11 – 13
2) 13 – 17
3) 17 – 19
4) 11 – 15

Correct Answer: 11 – 15

QID : 18 - In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

1) 4 – 12
2) 5 – 15
3) 6 – 18
4) 9 – 29

Correct Answer: 9 – 29

QID : 19 - Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Series
2. Singing
3. Secure
4. Sickle
5. Secured

1) 35142
2) 53142
3) 35124
4) 53124

Correct Answer: 35142

QID : 20 - Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Drive
2. Drown
3. Drain
4. Drink
5. Drama

1) 35421
2) 35412
3) 35214
4) 35241

Correct Answer: 35412

QID : 21 - Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Price
2. Prize
3. Police
4. Paint
5. Prawn

1) 45123
2) 45213
3) 43521
4) 43512

Correct Answer: 43512

QID : 22 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AG, FM, KS, PY, ?

1) RM
2) UE
3) JQ
4) YA

Correct Answer: UE

QID : 23 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

ALK, VGF, QBA, ?, GRQ

1) KST
2) ARP
3) CXD
4) LWV

Correct Answer: LWV

QID : 24 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

KPD, QVJ, WBP, CHV, ?

1) INB
2) GXF
3) ICM
4) ZDQ

Correct Answer: INB

QID : 25 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

3, 7, 11, 63, 27, 215, ?, ?

1) 47, 513
2) 51, 511
3) 51, 513
4) 47, 511

Correct Answer: 51, 511

QID : 26 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

18, 45, 112.5, ?, 703.125

1) 217.5
2) 262.25
3) 281.25
4) 273.75

Correct Answer: 281.25

QID : 27 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

30, 68, 130, 222, 350, ?

1) 504
2) 520
3) 476
4) 448

Correct Answer: 520

QID : 28 - Seg CD is shorter than Seg MN, Seg MN is shorter than Seg TR, Seg AB is shorter than Seg CD and Seg MN is shorter than Seg PQ. Which segment is the shortest?

1) CD
2) MN
3) PQ
4) AB

Correct Answer: AB

QID : 29 - A is B's father's father's daughter-in-law's daughter. If B's father has no brother then how is A related to B?

1) grand-daughter
2) daughter
3) mother
4) sister

Correct Answer: sister

QID : 30 - From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word

RECUPERATE

1) acute
2) trace
3) price
4) erupt

Correct Answer: price

QID : 31 - If TUESDAY is coded as VWGUFCA, then how will COW be coded as?

1) EQY
2) XLD
3) BNV
4) DPX

Correct Answer: EQY

QID : 32 - In a certain code language, 2369 means 'master class is fun', 9527 means 'act is class apart' and 1349 means 'we have fun class'. Find the code for 'fun'.

1) 2
2) 6
3) 3
4) 9

Correct Answer: 3

QID : 33 - In a certain code language, '+' represents '-', '-' represents 'x', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '+'. Find out the answer to the following question.

16 - 25 x 40 ÷ 60 + 15 = ?

1) 14
2) 72
3) 55
4) 63

Correct Answer: 55

QID : 34 - If 72 $ 20 = 46 and 1 $ 27 = 14 then find the value of 10 $ 44 = ?

1) 34
2) 54
3) 27
4) 17

Correct Answer: 27

QID : 35 - If A $ B means A is son of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A * B means A is father of B, then what does P # Q $ R * S mean?

1) P is father of S
2) P is father's father of S
3) P is brother of S
4) P is son of S

Correct Answer: P is brother of S

QID : 36 -

1) 2
2) 11
3) 1
4) 10

Correct Answer: 10

QID : 37 - Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

1) AAAAAABA
2) AAABAAAA
3) AAAABAAA
4) AAAAABAA

Correct Answer: AAABAAAA

QID : 38 - A Shopping mall worker loads his trolley and walks 50 m through an alley which is going North, then he turns to his left and walks 15 m, then he turns South and walks another 15 m, then he turns East and walks 25 m and then he turns south and walks 35 m. Where is he now with reference to his starting position?

1) 10 m West
2) 10 m East
3) 40 m East
4) 40 m West

Correct Answer: 10 m East

QID : 39 - Two battle tanks start from the same point. Tank A travels 12 km South, then turns to its left and travels 7 km. Tank B travels 7 km South, then turns West and travels 9 km, then turns to its left and travels 5 km. Where is tank A with respect to tank B?

1) 16 km West
2) 2 km East
3) 2 km West
4) 16 km East

Correct Answer: 16 km East

QID : 40 - In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: No cats are dogs
Statement II: Some cats are carnivores
Conclusion I: All dogs are carnivores
Conclusion II: All carnivores are dogs

1) Only conclusion I follows
2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Both conclusions I and II follow
4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

QID : 41 - In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: No bronze is copper
Statement II: Some alloy is bronze
Statement III: Some zinc is alloy

Conclusion I: Some zinc is bronze
Conclusion II: Some copper is zinc
Conclusion III: some alloy is copper

1) Only conclusions I and II follow
2) Only conclusions II and III follow
3) All conclusions I, II and III follow
4) None of the conclusions follow

Correct Answer: None of the conclusions follow

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Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 23 January 2018

Daily Questions Challenge for SSC CGL Exams - 23 January 2018

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post

Ques-1) Which of the following is correct regarding National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF)?

1. NIIF has been registered with SEBI as Category II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF).
2. The Fund aims to attract investment from both domestic and international sources.

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both
D. None

Ques-2) Roadkills app is related to which of the following?

A. help citizens report wildlife deaths
B. Help in reducing the speeds of vehicles
C. Help in managing the data related to people who have died during road accidents
D. None of the above

Ques-3 Which of the following countries are observer states in ASEAN?

a) Australia
b) Thailand
c) U.K
d) New Zealand

A) a,b
B) a,c
C) a,d
D) b,c

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SSC CGL TOPIC WISE QUESTION PAPER : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

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SSC CGL TOPIC WISE QUESTION PAPER : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE


1 The book titled 'The Indian War of Independence' was written by (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) Krishna Verma
(b) Madame Cama
(c) B.G. Tilak
(d) V.D. Savarkar

ANS (D)

2. Who among the following captured his third consecutive National Billiards title in the year 2009 ? (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) Pankaj Advani
(b) Devendra Joshi
(c) Geet Sethi
(d) Dhruv Sitawala

ANS (A)

3. What was the name of the ship that sank near the Paradip Port in September, 2009 causing an oil spill ? (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) Red Rose
(b) Black Rose
(c) White Rose
(d) Green Rose

ANS (A)

4. Who among the following has been honoured with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2007 ? (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) Yash Chopra
(b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Manna Dey
(d) A. Nageshwara Rao

ANS (C)

5. Who among the following won the 'ICC Cricketer of the Year Award' for the year 2009 ? (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) M.S. Dhoni
(b) Gautam Gambhir
(c) Mitchell Johnson
(d) Tillakaratne Dilshan

ANS (B)

6. NIS stands for (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) National Infectious diseases seminar
(b) National Irrigation Schedule
(c) National Immunisation Schedule
(d) National Information Sector

ANS (D)

7. Who discovered cement ? (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) Agassit
(b) Albertus Magnus
(c) Joseph Aspdin
(d) Janseen

ANS (C)

8. Red data book gives information about species which are: (SSC CGL 2011)

(a) extinct
(b) endangered
(c) dangerous
(d) rare

ANS (B)

9. Which of the following is the smallest bird? (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Pigeon
(b) Parrot
(c) Humming bird
(d) House sparrow

ANS (C)

10. The world's only floating national park is situated in: (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2011)

(a) Manipur
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Bilaspur
(d) Dispur

ANS (A)

11. The 'Project Snow Leopard' to conserve the endangered species, launched by the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests covers the states of: (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh only
(b) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand only
(c) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Arunachal Pradesh only
(d) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim

ANS (D)

12. The 2010 FIFA World Cup Final was held at: (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Paris
(b) Berlin
(c) Johannesburg
(d) London

ANS (C)

13. Who of the following received– Sangeet Natak Akademi's Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar for 2009 in 'Hindustani Vocal Music'? (SSC CGL 2011)

(a) Ornkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(b) Ragini Chander Shekar
(c) Abanti Chakravorty and Sukracharya Rabha
(d) K. Nellai Manikandan

ANS (A)

14. Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with Uttar Pradesh? (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Veedhi
(b) Thora
(c) Tamasha
(d) Rauf

ANS (B)

15. Which of the following books has been written by Atiq Rahimi? (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Earth and Ashes
(b) This Savage Rite
(c) The Red Devil
(d) Witness the Night

ANS (A)

16. Who is the recepient of the Sahitya Akademi Award 2010 in Hindi Literature category? (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Uday Prakash
(b) Laxman Dubey
(c) Nanjil Nandan
(d) Mangat Badal

ANS (A)

17. First Indian Prime Minister to visit Siachen has been (SSC CGL 2011)

(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Inder Kumar Gujaral
(c) Man Mohan Singh
(d) None of the above

ANS (C)

18. Which of the following books has been written by Kishwar Desai? (SSC CGL 2011)

(a) The Red Devil
(b) Witness the Night
(c) Tonight This Savage Rite
(d) Earth and Ashes

ANS (B)

19. Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with Karnataka? (SSC CGL 2011)

(a) Yakshagana
(b) Veedhi
(c) Jatra
(d) Jhora

ANS (A)

20. The Headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Geneva
(b) Paris
(c) Vienna
(d) Washington

ANS (C)

21. Vasundhara Summit was held in (SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2011)

(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Brazil
(d) Australia

ANS (C)

22. The first Indian who was chosen as the Secretary General of Commonwealth is (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Rakesh Verma
(b) Gopalaswami
(c) Krishna Murthy
(d) Kamalesh Sharma

ANS (D)

23. Kuldip Nayer, a journalist, was appointed as a High Commissioner in (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Australia
(c) UK
(d) Pakistan

ANS (C)

24. The National Policy for Empowerment of Women was adopted in the year (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) 2001
(b) 2005
(c) 1991
(d) 1995

ANS (A)

25. Ballots were first used in (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Australia
(b) USA
(c) Ancient Greece
(d) England

ANS (A)

26. Which of the following criteria is not used for the classification of human races? (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Nose
(b) Hair
(c) Eyes
(d) Ear

ANS (D)

27. The study of lake is called (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Topology
(b) Hydrology
(c) Limnology
(d) Potomology

ANS (C)

28. The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Madras
(b) Lucknow
(c) Delhi
(d) Bangalore

ANS (B)

29. How many spokes are there in the Dharmachakra of the National Flag? (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) 14
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 24

ANS (D)

30. The latest official language of the U.N. is (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Russian
(b) Arabic
(c) Chinese
(d) Spanish

ANS (B)

31. The latest book 'Kurukshetra to Kargil' is written by (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Suryanath Singh
(b) Kunal Bhardwaj
(c) Karan Singh
(d) Kuldip Singh

ANS (D)

32. The organisation involved primarily with environmental planning is (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) CIFRI
(b) ICAR
(c) CSIR
(d) NEERI

ANS (D)

33. The most endangered Asiatic top predator on the edge of extinction is (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Black Bear
(b) Asiatic Lion
(c) Siberian Tiger
(d) Dhole

ANS (D)   

34. Analects is the sacred book of (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Confucianism
(b) Judaism
(c) Shintoism
(d) Taoism

ANS (A)

35. Ram Sharan Sharma, who died in 2011 was an eminent (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Chemist
(b) Economist
(c) Indologist
(d) Archaeologist

ANS (C)

36. The 34th National Games were held in 2011 in:(SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Jharkhand

ANS (D)

37. Torah is the scared book of: (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Zoroastrianism
(b) Confucianism
(c) Taoism
(d) Judaism

ANS (C)

38. The 98th Indian Science Congress was held in 2011 at: (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Bengaluru
(b) Bhopal
(c) Chennai
(d) Bhubaneshwar

ANS (C)

39. Which bank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world? (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Hong Kong Bank
(b) Standard Chartered Bank
(c) Bank of America
(d) Citi Bank

ANS (D)

40. Mamta Sharma was appointed in 2011 as the chairperson of: (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) National Commission for Minorities
(b) National Commission for Protection of Child Right
(c) National Commission for women
(d) National Commission for BCs

ANS (C)

41. Human Development index was formulated by: (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) ASEAN
(b) IBRD
(c) UNDP
(d) UNCTAD

ANS (C)

42. Who is the author of the book ‘Pakistan: Beyond the Crisis State’? (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Khuram Iqbal
(b) Maleeha Lodhi
(c) Amir Mir
(d) M. J. Akbar

ANS (B)

43. What is the name of the currency of Bangladesh ? (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Taka
(b) Lek
(c) Dinar
(d) Peso

ANS (A)

44. The famous car (chariot) festival is held at (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Puri
(b) Gwalior
(c) Bhopal
(d) Konark

ANS (A)

45. The most literate Union Territory in India is (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Chandigarh
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Delhi
(d) Pondicherry

ANS (B)

46. The first Secretary-General of the United Nations was (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) U. Thant
(b) Dr. Kurt Waldheim
(c) Dag Hammarskjold
(d) Trygve Lie

ANS (D)

47. The book “Tinderbox : The Past and Future of Pakistan” is written by (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Jamil Ahmad
(b) Khatija Akbar
(c) Khurram Iqbal
(d) M.J. Akbar

ANS (D)

48. Which of the following cities in India is considered the greenest ? (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Delhi
(b) Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Bangalore
(d) Chandigarh

ANS (D)

49. Synagogue is the place of worship of (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Zoroastrianism
(b) Taoism
(c) Judaism
(d) Shintoism

ANS (C)

50. One of the following Chief Ministers received the Highest Civilian Award “Bharat Ratna” (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Lalu Prasad Yadav of Bihar
(b) Late M. G. Ramachandran of Tamilnadu
(c) Jyothi Basu of West Bengal
(d) Late N. T. Rama Rao of Andhra Pradesh

ANS (B)

51. Which one of the following film-actors has been conferred the Honorary Doctorate in Arts and Culture by the Bedford University, London? (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Shahrukh Khan
(b) Amir Khan
(c) Saif Ali Khan
(d) Anil Kapoor

ANS (A)

52. Who advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model to eradicate rural poverty? (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Sri Abhijit Sen
(c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(d) Prof. A. M. Patha

ANS (A)

53. Which one of the following though called a garden is infact,not a garden? (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Vrindavan Garden of Mysore
(b) Hanging Garden of Mumbai
(c) Eden Garden of Kolkata
(d) Shalimar Garden of Kashmir

ANS (C)

54. Who wrote the book "Why Socialism"? (SSC CGL 2013)

(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Acharya Narendra Dev
(d) M.N. Roy

ANS (A)

55. Multi purpose river valley projects are the "New temples of modern India ". (SSC CGL 2013)

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Motilal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Rajiv Gandhi

ANS (A)

56. The 'One Straw Revolution" was written by: (SSC CGL  2013)

(a) Masanobu Fukuoka
(b) Richael Carlson
(c) M.S. Swaminathan
(d) Norman Borlaug

ANS (A)

57. Aung San Suu Kyi is a native to : (SSC CGL 2013)

(a) Tibet
(b) China
(c) Myanmar
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

ANS (C)

58. Non Residential Indians (NRI) Day is marked on: (SSC CGL  2013)

(a) January 7
(b) January 9
(c) January 17
(d) January 19

ANS (B)

59. "Whether I earned your vote or not, I have listened to you, I have learned from you. You have made me a better President", was said by : (SSC CGL  2013)

(a) Pranab Mukherjee
(b) Barack Obama
(c) George Bush
(d) APJ Abdul Kalam

ANS (B)

 SSC CGL EXAM 2018 Printed Study Kit

एसएससी - कर्मचारी चयन आयोग (सीजीएल) परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री - 2018

SSC CGL TOPIC WISE QUESTION PAPER : COMPUTERS

SSC CGL LOGO


SSC CGL TOPIC WISE QUESTION PAPER : COMPUTERS


1. The messenger satellite launched by NASA is to study (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Satrun
(d) Jupiter

ANS (A)

2. An Intelligent terminal (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)

(a) has a microprocessor, but can-not be programmed by the user
(b) can process small data processing jobs, with the use of a large CPU
(c) interacts with the user in English
(d) cannot take data from the user

ANS (A)

3. Which of the following countries has recently become the third largest market for Twitter ? (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) China
(b) India
(c) Brazil
(d) Indonesia

ANS (C)

4. Processor's speed of a computer is measured in (SSC CGL  2010)

(a) BPS
(b) MIPS
(c) Baud
(d) Hertz

ANS (B)

5. 'C' language is a (SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2010)

(a) Low level language
(b) High level language
(c) Machine level language
(d) Assembly level language

ANS (B)

6. Window 7, the latest operating system from Microsoft Corporation has .............. Indian languages fonts.(SSC CGL 2010)

(a) 14
(b) 26
(c) 37
(d) 49

ANS (D)

7. The first computer made available for commercial use was: (SSC CGL 2011)

(a) MANIAC
(b) ENIAC
(c) UNIVAC
(d) EDSAC

ANS (C)

8. A communication network which is used by large organizations over regional, national or global area is called: (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) LAN
(b) WAN
(c) MAN
(d) VAN

ANS (B)

9. Indian Army's Operation 'Saiyam' was related to : (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Kashmir
(b) Indo–China Border in the Central Region
(c) North–East
(d) Indo–Pak Border in Punjab and Rajasthan

ANS (D)

10. The Headquarters of MCF (Master Control Facility) – the nerve centre of the entire space craft operations in India is at (SSC CGL 2011)

(a) Hyderabad – Andhra Pradesh
(b) Thumba – Kerala
(c) Sriharikota – Andhra Pradesh
(d) Hassan – Karnataka

ANS (D)

11. In which of the following areas, a spreadsheet software is more useful? (SSC CGL 2011)

(a) Psychology
(b) Publishing
(c) Statistics
(d) Message sending

ANS (C)

12. A Group Ware is a (SSC CGL  2011)

(a) Hardware
(b) Network
(c) Software
(d) Firmware

ANS (C)

13. The transfer of date from a CPU to peripheral devices of computer is achieved through (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) interfaces
(b) buffer memory
(c) modems
(d) computer ports

ANS (A)

14. Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Networks (LANs)? (SSC CGL  2012)

(a) Interface Card
(b) Cable
(c) Computer
(d) Modem

ANS (C)

15. What is m-commerce? (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) machine commerce
(b) mobile commerce
(c) money commerce
(d) marketing commerce

ANS (B)

16. Who invented the modem ? (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Apple Computers Inc.
(b) Digital Equipment Corporation
(c) Wang Laboratories Ltd.
(d) AT&T Information Systems\

ANS (D)

17. What is the name given to the smallest unit of data space available in a spreadsheet software application ? (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Row
(b) Block
(c) Cell
(d) Pixel

ANS (C)

18. An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is (SSC CGL 2012)

(a) Mesh
(b) Star
(c) Tree
(d) Ring

ANS (A)

 SSC CGL EXAM 2018 Printed Study Kit

एसएससी - कर्मचारी चयन आयोग (सीजीएल) परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री - 2018

Model Questions for SSC Junior Engineer EXAM - Mechanical Engg Set-10

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Model Questions for SSC Junior Engineer EXAM - Mechanical Engg Set-10

1. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at __________ to the direction of the blade motion.

A. 60°
B. 90°
C. 180°
D. 270°

2. De-Laval turbine is a

A. single rotor impulse turbine
B. multi-rotor impulse turbine
C. impulse reaction turbine
D. none of these

3. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force

A. as an impulsive force
B. as a reaction force
C. partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
D. none of the above

4. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called

A. stage efficiency
B. internal efficiency
C. Rankine efficiency
D. none of these

5.The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is

A. 0.546
B. 0.577
C. 0.582
D. 0.601

Study Kit for SSC Junior Engineer EXAM (Paper-1) 2017-2018

SSC Courses and Programs: 

Model Questions for SSC Junior Engineer EXAM - Electrical Engg set-10

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Model Questions for SSC Junior Engineer EXAM - Electrical Engg set-10

1. The transformer ratio of the transformer depends upon the

(a) Exciting current
(b) Secondary current
(c) Power factor of secondary circuit
(d) All of these

2. The bridge suitable for the measurement of capacitance is / are

(a) Anderson's bridge
(b) Hay's bridge
(c) Owen's bridge
(d) None of these

3. The method / methods suitable for the measurement of low resistance is / are

(a) Ammeter - voltmeter method
(b) Kelvin's double bridge method
(c) Potentiometer method
(d) All of these

4. If the reading of the two wattmeters is equal and opposite while measuring power in a 3 phase induction motor then the power factor of the load will be

(a) Unity
(b) Zero
(c) 0.5 lagging
(d) 0.5 leading

SSC Courses and Programs: 

SSC STENOGRAPHERS (GRADE C&D) TOPIC WISE QUESTION PAPER : ECONOMICS


SSC STENOGRAPHERS (GRADE C&D) TOPIC WISE QUESTION PAPER : ECONOMICS


1. All economic goods are considered are ................in economics. (SSC Steno. 2013)

(a) Wealth
(b) Money
(c) Capital
(d) Materials

ANS (D)

2. Total demand for goods and services at various levels of employment is called as (SSC Steno. 2013)

(a) Effective demand
(b) National demand
(c) Market Demand (d) Employment demand

ANS (C)

3. Relationship between price of related goods and quantity of a particular commodity is called as (SSC Steno. 2013)

(a) Income - demand
(b) Market - demand
(c) Cross - demand
(d) Price - demand

ANS (C)

4. Devaluation means (SSC Steno. 2014)

(a) reduction in the external value of currency
(b) fall in valuation of the essentials in an economy
(c) depreciation of the fixed assets
(d) increase in the currency value in terms of foreign currency

ANS (A)

5. Disguised unemployment means (SSC Steno. 2014)

(a) willing to work and not getting the work
(b) not getting work on all days
(c) insufficiency of capital structure to absorb the large force
(d) more people working, than required

ANS (B)

6. The '3 B 's' - brokers, bankers and businessmen were responsible for (SSC Steno. 2014)

(a) The Great Depression
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) French Revolution
(d) First world war

ANS (A)

Printed Study Kit for SSC Stenographers (Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’) Examination (Paper -1)

एसएससी स्टेनोग्राफर ग्रेड - सी & डी पेपर - 1 परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री (Paper - 1)

SSC CHSL TOPIC WISE QUESTION PAPER : ECONOMICS

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SSC CHSL TOPIC WISE QUESTION PAPER : ECONOMICS


1. Open market operation refers to : (SSC CHSL 2012)

(a) borrowing by scheduled banks to industry and trade
(b) purchase and sale of government securities by the rbi
(c) deposit mobilisation
(d) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI

ANS (B)

2. Who are the price-takers under Perfect Competition ?(SSC CHSL 2012)

(a) industry
(b) government
(c) firms
(d) buyers

ANS (C)

3. An employment situation where the marginal productivity of agricultural labour is zero is known as : (SSC CHSL 2012)

(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Cyclical unemployment
(c) Disguised unemployment
(d) Disguised unemployment

ANS (C)

4. Which one of the following is a raw material oriented industry ? (SSC CHSL 2012)

(a) Sugar industry
(b) Petroleum refinery
(c) Light engineering industry
(d) Ship building

ANS (A)

5. The basic object of all production is to (SSC CHSL 2013)

(a) increase physical output
(b) satisfy human wants
(c) provide employment
(d) make profits

ANS (B)

6. Inflation is caused by (SSC CHSL 2013)

(a) decrease in production
(b) increase in money supply and decrease in production
(c) increase in money supply
(d) increase in production

ANS (B)

7. Dumping is a form of price discrimination at (SSC CHSL 2013)

(a) local level
(b) within industry
(c) national level
(d) international level

ANS (D)

8. The equilibrium of a firm under perfect competition will be determined when (SSC CHSL 2013)

(a) Marginal Cost > Average Cost
(b) Marginal Revenue > Average Cost
(c) Marginal Revenue > Average Revenue
(d) Marginal Revenue = Marginal Cost

ANS (D)

9. Expenditure on advertisement and public relations by an enterprise is a part of its (SSC CHSL 2013)

(a) fixed capital
(b) consumption of fixed capital
(c) final consumption expenditure
(d) intermediate consumption
ANS (D)

10. Which of the following is not an economic problem ? (SSC CHSL 2014)

(a) Deciding between paid work and leisure.
(b) Deciding between expenditure on one good and the other.
(c) Deciding between alternative methods of personal saving.
(d) Deciding between different ways of spending leisure time.

ANS (D)

Printed Study Kit for SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam

एसएससी CHSL(10+2) परीक्षा ​​अध्ययन सामग्री

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